NEET PYQs · 2019 · Code P1

NEET 2019 — Code P1

Official NTA NEET-UG 2019 question paper, set P1. 148 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.

When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (𝐿+𝑙). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:

(1)

Mgl

(2)

MgL

(3)

1 2 Mgl

(4)

1 2 MgL

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Answer: C

A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when:

(1)

the mass is at the highest point

(2)

the wire is horizontal

(3)

the mass is at the lowest point

(4)

inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical

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Answer: C

Ionized hydrogen atoms and α-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field B. the ratio of their radii of their paths rH : rα will be

(1)

2 : 1

(2)

1: 2

(3)

4 : 1

(4)

1 : 4

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Answer: A

In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used. The angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2 °. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (μwater=4/3)

(1)

0.266°

(2)

0.15°

(3)

0.05°

(4)

0.1°

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Answer: B

In which of the following device the eddy current effect is not used?

(1)

induction furnace

(2)

magnetic braking in train

(3)

electromagnet

(4)

electric heater

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Answer: D

A soap bubble having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 × 10−2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the free surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s 2 density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is :

(1)

100 cm

(2)

10 cm

(3)

1 cm

(4)

0.5 cm

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Answer: C

Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

(1)

red

(2)

blue

(3)

green

(4)

violet

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Answer: A

A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it?

(1)

3 J

(2)

30 kJ

(3)

2 J

(4)

1 J

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Answer: A

Two similar thin equi -convex lens of focal length each are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1. When the space between the two lens is filled with glycerin (which has the same refractive index ( μ = 1.5) index as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F 2. The ratio F 1 : F2 will be

(1)

2 : 1

(2)

1 : 2

(3)

2 : 3

(4)

3 : 1

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Answer: B

The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 1 TIME : 3 HRS DATE : 05-5-2019 NEET (UG) – 2019 SET- R3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 1. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by y = 𝐴0 + A sinwt + B coswt Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

(1)

A + B

(2)

𝐴0 + √𝐴2 + 𝐵2

(3)

√𝐴2 + 𝐵2

(4)

√𝐴0 2 +(𝐴 + 𝐵)2

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Answer: C

Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow,

(1)

When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed.

(2)

The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow.

(3)

An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun.

(4)

Rainbow is combined effect of dispersion, refraction and reflection of sunlight.

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Answer: C

A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the center of the earth?

(1)

200 N

(2)

150 N

(3)

250 N

(4)

100 N

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Answer: D

Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero internal resistance. The rate of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are gl owing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing will be :

(1)

4 : 9

(2)

9 : 4

(3)

1 : 2

(4)

2 :1

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Answer: B

For p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true?

(1)

Electrons are the majority carries and trivalent atoms are the dopants

(2)

Holes are the majority carri es and trivalent atoms are the dopants

(3)

Holes are the majority carries and pentavalent atoms are the dopants

(4)

Electrons are the majority carries and pentavalent atoms are the dopants

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Answer: B

Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one simple vibration is :

(1)

𝐴ω 2

(2)

𝐴ω

(3)

𝐴ω2 2

(4)

zero

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Answer: D

The unit of thermal conductivity is :

(1)

J m 𝐾—1

(2)

J 𝑚—1 𝐾—1

(3)

W 𝑚—1 𝐾—1

(4)

Wm 𝐾—1 N E W S 2 vm/s 10 m/s θ 10Ω i1 V1 V1 10V 10Ω i2 A2 V2 10V 10Ω 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Answer: C

A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolution is:

(1)

2×106 𝑁 𝑚

(2)

2×10−3 𝑁 𝑚

(3)

12×10−4 𝑁𝑚

(4)

2×10−6 𝑁 𝑚

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Answer: D

A force 𝐹=20+10𝑦 acts on a particle in y- direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from 𝑦=0 to 𝑦=1 𝑚 is:

(1)

30 J

(2)

5 J

(3)

25 J

(4)

20 J

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Answer: C

Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device?

(1)

conductor

(2)

inductor

(3)

switch

(4)

fuse

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Answer: D

A hollow metal sphere of radius R is u niformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre x1 v 60° = θ1 x2 v 30° = θ2 V1 V2 h = R m 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1)

increases as r increases for 𝑟<𝑅 and for 𝑟>𝑅

(2)

zero as r increases for 𝑟<𝑅, decreases as r increase for 𝑟>𝑅

(3)

zero as r increases for 𝑟<𝑅, increases as r increases for 𝑟>𝑅

(4)

decreases as r increases for 𝑟<𝑅 and for 𝑟> 𝑅

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Answer: B

At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, 𝛿=+25°. At a point B on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, 𝛿= −25°. We can interpret that:

(1)

A and B are both located in the northern hemisphere.

(2)

A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.

(3)

A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.

(4)

A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.

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Answer: C

The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is – 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively :

(1)

4 eV, 3.4 eV

(2)

– 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV

(3)

4 eV, –6.8 eV

(4)

– 3.4 eV, –3.4 eV

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Answer: C

In total internal reflection, when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be the angle of refraction?

(1)

180°

(2)

(3)

Equal to angle of incidence

(4)

90°

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Answer: D

α- particle consists of:

(1)

2 protons and 2 neutrons only

(2)

2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons

(3)

2 electrons and 4 protons only

(4)

2 protons only

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Answer: A

Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii r A and r B with equal speed v A and v B respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of angular speed of A to that of B will be :

(1)

rA : rB

(2)

vA : vB

(3)

rB : rA

(4)

1 : 1

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Answer: D

A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1m. The coefficient of friction between the b lock and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder to keep the block stationary whose the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

√10 = rad/s

(2)

10 = rad/s

(3)

10 rad/s

(4)

10 2𝑣 rad/s

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Answer: C

Two parallel infinite line charge with linear charge densities +λ C/m and −λ C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is the electric field midway between the two line charge?

(1)

C / NR02πε λ

(2)

C / NR0πε λ

(3)

Zero

(4)

C / NR0 2 πε λ

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Answer: B

Two point charge A and B, having charges +𝑄 and −𝑄 respectively is placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B then force between the charges becomes:

(1)

𝐹

(2)

9𝐹 16

(3)

16𝐹 9

(4)

4𝐹 3

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Answer: B

A small hole of area of cross -section 2𝑚𝑚2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking 𝑔=10 𝑚/𝑠2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly:

(1)

12.6×10−6 𝑚3/𝑠

(2)

8.9×10−6 𝑚3/𝑠

(3)

23×10−6 𝑚3/𝑠

(4)

6.4×10−6 𝑚3/𝑠

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Answer: A

The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is:

(1)

AND

(2)

OR

(3)

NAND

(4)

NOR

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Answer: C

In which of the following process heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system?

(1)

isothermal

(2)

adiabatic

(3)

isobaric

(4)

isochoric

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Answer: B

A 800 turns rod of effective area 0.05 m 2 is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10−5 T. When the plane of the coil is rotated at 90° around any of its coplanar axis is 0.1 s. The emf induced in the coil will be:

(1)

2 V

(2)

0.2 V

(3)

2 × 10−3 V

(4)

0.02 V

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Answer: D

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the displacement current through the plates of the capacitor, would be, respectively:

(1)

zero, 60 μA

(2)

60 μA, 60 μA

(3)

60 μA, zero

(4)

zero, zero

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Answer: B

A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B with the distance d from the centre of the conductor, is correctly represented by figure.

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

(3)

(Image option — will be added soon) (3)

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

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Answer: D

The number of sigma ( σ) and pi ( π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is:

(1)

10 σ bonds and 3π bond

(2)

8 σ bonds and 5π bond

(3)

11 σ bonds and 2π bond

(4)

13 σ bonds and no π bond

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Answer: A

The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction is:

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(3)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (3)

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Answer: D

The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is: 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

(3)

(Image option — will be added soon) (3)

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

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Answer: B

4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is:

(1)

5f > 6 p > 5p > 4d

(2)

6p > 5f > 5p > 4d

(3)

6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

(4)

5f > 6p > 4d > 5p

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Answer: A

Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction? (a) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0 (b) 3MnO4 2−+ 4H+→ 2MnO4 − + MnO2 + 2H2O (c) 2KMnO4 Δ → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (d) 2MnO4 − + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H+ Select the correct option from the following:

(1)

(a) and (b) only

(2)

(a), (b) and (c)

(3)

(a), (c) and (d)

(4)

(a) and (d) only

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Answer: A

Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is: [Given that 1 L bar = 100 J]

(1)

30 J

(2)

5 kJ

(3)

25 J

(4)

–30 J

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Answer: D

Among the following the one that is not a green house gas is

(1)

nitrous oxide

(2)

methane

(3)

ozone

(4)

sulphur dioxide

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Answer: D

Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the cofactor M is:

(1)

Be

(2)

Mg

(3)

Ca

(4)

Sr

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Answer: B

The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is:

(1)

Na/liquid NH3

(2)

H2,Pd/C, quinoline

(3)

Zn/HCl

(4)

Hg2+/H+, H2O

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Answer: B

Which is the correct thermal stability order for 𝐻2𝐸 (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)

(1)

𝐻2𝑆𝑒<𝐻2𝑇𝑒<𝐻2𝑃𝑜<𝐻2𝑂<𝐻2𝑆

(2)

𝐻2𝑆<𝐻2𝑂<𝐻2𝑆𝑒<𝐻2𝑇𝑒<𝐻2𝑃𝑜

(3)

𝐻2𝑂<𝐻2𝑆<𝐻2𝑆𝑒<𝐻2𝑇𝑒<𝐻2𝑃𝑜

(4)

𝐻2𝑃𝑜<𝐻2𝑇𝑒<𝐻2𝑆𝑒<𝐻2𝑆<𝐻2𝑂

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Answer: D

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1)

𝑃𝑏𝐹4 is covalent in nature

(2)

𝑆𝑖𝐶𝑙4 is easily hydrolysed

(3)

𝐺𝑒𝑋4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than 𝐺𝑒𝑋2

(4)

𝑆𝑛𝐹4 is ionic in nature

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Answer: A

Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only π bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?

(1)

𝑂2

(2)

N2

(3)

𝐶2

(4)

𝐵𝑒2

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Answer: C

For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

(1)

Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne

(2)

Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

(3)

Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

(4)

Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

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Answer: B

The biodegradable polymer is:

(1)

nylon-6, 6

(2)

nylon 2-nylon 6

(3)

nylon-6

(4)

Buna-S

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Answer: B

pH of a saturated solution of Ca (𝑂𝐻)2 is 9. The solubility product (𝐾𝑠𝑝) of 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 is:

(1)

0.5 × 10−15 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

0.25 × 10−10

(3)

0.125 × 10−15

(4)

0.5 × 10−10

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Answer: A

If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by:

(1)

t = 0.693/k

(2)

t = 6.909/k

(3)

t = 4.606/k

(4)

t = 2.303/k

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Answer: C

The non -essential amino acid among the following is:

(1)

valine

(2)

leucine

(3)

alanine

(4)

lysine

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Answer: C

Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(3)

13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

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Answer: C

The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is:

(1)

10

(2)

20

(3)

30

(4)

40

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Answer: C

The compound that is most difficult to protonate is:

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(3)

(Image option — will be added soon) (3)

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

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Answer: B

For an ideal solution, the correct option is

(1)

Δmix𝑆=0 at constant T and P

(2)

Δmix𝑉≠0 at constant T and P

(3)

Δmix𝐻=0 at constant T and P

(4)

Δmix𝐺=0 at constant T and P

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Answer: C

Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are

(1)

OH– and H2F+, respectively

(2)

H3O+ and F–, respectively

(3)

OH– and F–, respectively

(4)

H3O+ and H2F+, respectively

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Answer: C

Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the formation of negatively charged colloidal [AgI]I− sol.?

(1)

50 mL of 1 M AgNO3+50 mL of 1.5 M Kl

(2)

50 mL of 1 M AgNO3+50 mL of 2 M Kl

(3)

50 mL of 2 M AgNO3+50 mL of 1.5 M Kl

(4)

50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3+50 mL of 0.1 M Kl

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Answer: A

Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is:

(1)

penicillin G

(2)

ampicillin

(3)

amoxycillin

(4)

chloramphenicol

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Answer: A

An alkene “A” on reaction with 𝑂3 and Zn – 𝐻2𝑂 gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product “B” is:

(1)

Cl−CH2−CH2− CH3 | CH | CH3

(2)

H3C−CH2− CH2Cl | CH−CH3

(3)

H3C−CH2− CH3 | C−CH3 | Cl

(4)

H3C−CH | Cl − CH3 | CH | CH3

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Answer: C

What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory

(1)

𝑡2𝑔 6 𝑒𝑔0

(2)

𝑡2𝑔 4 𝑒𝑔2

(3)

𝑒3𝑡2 3

(4)

e4𝑡2 2

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Answer: A

Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl 5 from the following:

(1)

Three equatorial P – Cl bond make an angle of 120° with each other

(2)

Two axial P –Cl bonds make an angle of 180 ° with each other

(3)

Axial P –Cl bond are longer than equatorial P –Cl bonds

(4)

PCl5 molecule is non reactive

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Answer: D

Which will make basic buffer?

(1)

50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M

(2)

100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH+100mL of 0.1 M

(3)

100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M NH4OH

(4)

100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH

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Answer: C

The major product of the following reaction is:

(1)

(Image option — will be added soon) (1)

(2)

(Image option — will be added soon) (4)

(3)

(Image option — will be added soon) (2)

(4)

(Image option — will be added soon) (3)

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Answer: D

Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column -II and assign the correct code:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) 𝑋𝑒𝐹4(i) pyramidal
(b) 𝑋𝑒𝐹6(ii) square planar
(c) 𝑋𝑒𝑂𝐹4(iii) distorted octahedral
(d) 𝑋𝑒𝑂3(iv) square pyramidal Code:
(1)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3)

(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii )

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Answer: B

The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to

(1)

Then π-bonding involves overlap of p - orbitals of oxygen with d -orbitals of manganese

(2)

There is no π-bonding

(3)

The π-bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese

(4)

The π-bonding involves overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganes

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Answer: A

For a cell involving one electron 𝐸cell ⊖ =0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is: [Given that 2.303 RT F =0.059 V at T=298 K]

(1)

0 × 1030

(2)

0 × 1010

(3)

0 × 102

(4)

0 × 105

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Answer: B

Which of the following is an amphoteric hydroxide?

(1)

𝐵𝑒(𝑂𝐻)2

(2)

𝑆𝑟(𝑂𝐻)2

(3)

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2

(4)

𝑀𝑔(𝑂𝐻)2

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Answer: A
84
Environmental Chemistry

A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas under the same conditions. The correct option about the gas and its compressibility factor (Z) is:

(1)

Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(2)

Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

(3)

Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

(4)

Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

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Answer: C

A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is:

(1)

C2A3

(2)

C3A2

(3)

C3A4

(4)

C4A3

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Answer: C

In which case change in entropy is negative?

(1)

Evaporation of water

(2)

Expansion of gas at constant temperature

(3)

Sublimation of solid to gas

(4)

2H(g) → H2(g)

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Answer: D

Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region?

(1)

Lyman series

(2)

Balmer series

(3)

Paschen series

(4)

Brackett series

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Answer: B
88
The Solid State

The method used to remove temporary hardness of water is:

(1)

Calgon’s method

(2)

Clark’s method

(3)

Ion-exchange method

(4)

Synthetic resins method

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which one is malachite from the following?

(1)

CuFeS2

(2)

Fe3O4

(3)

CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

(4)

Cu(OH)2

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is:

(1)

(𝐶𝐻3)2𝑁𝐻>𝐶𝐻3𝑁𝐻2>(𝐶𝐻3)3𝑁

(2)

(𝐶𝐻3)3𝑁>(𝐶𝐻3)2𝑁𝐻>𝐶𝐻3𝑁𝐻2

(3)

(𝐶𝐻3)3𝑁>𝐶𝐻3𝑁𝐻2>(𝐶𝐻3)2𝑁𝐻

(4)

𝐶𝐻3𝑁𝐻2>(𝐶𝐻3)2𝑁𝐻>(𝐶𝐻3)3𝑁

Show answer & solution
Answer: A
91
Environmental Issues

The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called: 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(1)

To reduce CO2 emissions and global warming.

(2)

For conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits,

(3)

To assess threat posed to native species by invasive weed species.

(4)

For immediate steps to discontinue use of CFSs that were damaging the ozone layer,

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of location is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains:

(1)

Natural killer cells

(2)

Monocytes

(3)

Macrophages

(4)

Immunoglobulin A

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following:

(1)

Closure of stomata

(2)

Flaccidity of Bulliform cells

(3)

Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll

(4)

Tyloses in vessels

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as:

(1)

s – arm and l – am respectively

(2)

p – arm q – arm respectively

(3)

q – arm and p – arm respectively

(4)

m – arm and n – arm respectively

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

(1)

Cyclosporin A

(2)

Statin

(3)

Streptokinase

(4)

Lipases

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the following structures with their respective location in organs

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Crypts of Lieberktihn(i) Pancreas
(b) Glisson’s capsule(ii) Duodenum
(c) latest of Langerhans(iii) Small intestine
(d) Brunner’s Glands(iv) Laver
(1)

(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2)

(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction?

(1)

Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2)

Drought and floods

(3)

Economic

(4)

Alien species invasion

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

(1)

Cerebrum

(2)

Hypothalamus

(3)

Corpus callosum

(4)

Medulla oblongata

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth?

(1)

Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard →Ileum →Colon→ Rectum

(2)

Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum

(3)

Pharynx → Oesophagus →Gizzard → Ileum →Crop →Colon → Rectum

(4)

Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard→ Colon → Rectum

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for green house effect?

(1)

Ozone and Ammonia

(2)

Oxygen and Nitrogen

(3)

Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide

(4)

Carbon dioxide and Methane

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited?

(1)

Tetany

(2)

Muscular dystrophy

(3)

Myasthenia gravis

(4)

Botulism

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in:

(1)

Bile duct and Bronchioles

(2)

Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct

(3)

Eustachian tube and Salivary duct

(4)

Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is:

(1)

M → G1 → G2 →S

(2)

G1 → G2 →S → M

(3)

S → G1 → G2 → M

(4)

G1 → S → G2 → m

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities?

(1)

Changing the pe rmeability of the cell membrane.

(2)

Binding to DNA and forming a gene-hormone complex.

(3)

Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell membrane.

(4)

using aquaporin channels are second messenger.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B
111
Reproduction in Organisms

Which one of the following statements regarding post fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?

(1)

Ovary develops into fruit

(2)

Zygote develops into embryo

(3)

Central cell develops into endosperm

(4)

Ovules develop into embryo sac

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Concanavalin A is:

(1)

an alkaloid

(2)

an essential oil

(3)

a lectin

(4)

a pigment

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which one of the following equipment is essentially required for growing increase on a large scale for industrial production of enamels?

(1)

BOD incubator

(2)

Sludge digester

(3)

Industrial oven

(4)

Bioreactor

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Consider the following statement: (A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. (B)A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme. Select the correct option.

(1)

Both (A) and (B) are false.

(2)

Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3)

(A) is true but (B) are true.

(4)

(A) is false but (B) is true.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:

(1)

Adenine and thymine

(2)

Adenine and guanine

(3)

Guanine and cytosine

(4)

Cytosine and thymine

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

(1)

Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rate testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

(2)

Seminiferous tubules → Rate testis →Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus

(3)

Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

(4)

Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the hominids with their correct brain size:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Homo habilis(i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis(ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus(iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens(iv) 1400 cc
(1)

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4)

(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are

(1)

Random and directional

(2)

Random and directionless

(3)

Small and directional

(4)

Small and directionless

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following pairs of organelles does not contain DNA?

(1)

Mitochondria and Lysosomes

(2)

Chloroplast and Vacuoles

(3)

Lysosomes and Vacuoles

(4)

Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Due to increasing air borne allergens and pollutants many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to:

(1)

benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity .

(2)

inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.

(3)

profile form of fibrous tissues and damage walls.

(4)

reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the incorrect statement.

(1)

Male fruit fly is heterogametic.

(2)

In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome. 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(3)

In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg.

(4)

Human males have one of their sex - chromosome much shorter than the other.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :

(1)

Isopropanol

(2)

Chilled ethanol

(3)

Methanol at room temperature

(4)

Chilled Chloroform

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the correct group of biocontrol agents

(1)

Bacillus thuringiensis , tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis

(3)

Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

(4)

Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the incorrect statement

(1)

Inbreeding increases homozygosity.

(2)

Inbreeding is essential to evolve pure lines in any animal.

(3)

Inbreeding selects harmful recessive genes that reduce fertility and productivity.

(4)

Inbreeding helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of undesirable genes.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

match the following organisms with the products they produces :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Lactobacillus(i) Cheese
(b) Saccharomyces(ii) Curd
(c) Aspergillus niger(iii) Citric Acid
(d) Acetobacter(iv) Bread (v) Acetic Acid
(1)

(ii) (iv) (v) (iii)

(2)

(iii) (iv) (v) (i)

(3)

(ii) (i) (iii) (v)

(4)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (v)

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem?

(1)

Non-multidirectional

(2)

Upward

(3)

Downward

(4)

Bi-directional

Show answer & solution
Answer: D
127
Reproduction in Organisms

In some plants, the female gamete develops into is known as:

(1)

Autogamy

(2)

Parthenocarpy

(3)

Syngamy

(4)

Parthenogenesis

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as :

(1)

Chalaza

(2)

Perisperm

(3)

Hilum

(4)

Tegmen

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

(1)

A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 10% cross over.

(2)

A unit of distance between two expressed Genes, representing 100% cross over

(3)

A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.

(4)

A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes representing 50% cross over.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

(1)

50 beats per minute

(2)

75 beats per minute

(3)

100 beats per minute

(4)

125 beats per minute

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out :

(1)

Nitrogen fixation

(2)

Chemoautotrophic fixation

(3)

Nitrification

(4)

Denitrification

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine

(1)

Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.

(2)

Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys. 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(3)

Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex.

(4)

Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B
133
Reproduction in Organisms

Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect?

(1)

Outer membrane is permeable to monomers of carbohydrates, fats and proteins. 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2)

Enzymes of electron transport and embedded in outer membrane.

(3)

Inner membrane is convoluted with infoldings.

(4)

Mitochondrial material contains single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Xylem translocates:

(1)

Water only

(2)

Water and mineral salts only

(3)

Water, mineral salts and some organic nitrogen only

(4)

Water, mineral salts, some organic nitrogen and hormones

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Cells in G0 Phase:

(1)

Exit the cells cycle

(2)

enter the cell cycle

(3)

Suspend the cell cycle

(4)

Terminate the cell cycle

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees ?

(1)

Annual rings is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year.

(2)

Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark b ands of tissue early and late wood respectively.

(3)

Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.

(4)

Annual rings are not prominent in tree of temperate region.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?

(1)

Pyramid of numbers in grassland

(2)

Pyramid of energy

(3)

Pyramid of biomass in a forest

(4)

Pyramid of biomass in a sea

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following protocols did aim for reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbouns into the atmosphere ?

(1)

Montreal protocol

(2)

Kyoto Protocol

(3)

Gothenburg Protocol

(4)

Geneva Protocol

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following contraceptive methods to involve a role of hormone?

(1)

Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

(2)

Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills

(3)

CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

(4)

Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

What is the fate of the male gemetes discharged in the synergid?

(1)

One fuses with egg, other(s) degenerate(s) in the synergid.

(2)

All fuse with the egg.

(3)

one fuses with egg. other(s) fuse(s) with synergid nucleus.

(4)

One fuses with egg and other fuses with central cell nuclei.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

(1)

Lateral buds

(2)

Pulvinus

(3)

Shoot apex

(4)

Leaves

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus:

(1)

Mangifera indica Car. Linn

(2)

Mangifera indica Linn.

(3)

Mangifera indica

(4)

Mangifera Indica

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Following statements describe the characteristies of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)

The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA

(2)

The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only of the tow strands.

(3)

The enzyme cuts the sugar -phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.

(4)

The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Conversion of glucoses to glucose – 6 - phosphate, the first irrev ersible reaction of glycolysis is catalyzed by:

(1)

Aldolase

(2)

Hexokinase

(3)

Enolase

(4)

Phosphofructokinase

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by:

(1)

Methylation of morphine

(2)

Acetylation of morphine

(3)

glycosylation of morphine

(4)

Nitration of morphine

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the hormone -releasing Intra -Uterine Devices.

(1)

Vaults, LNG-20

(2)

Multiload 375, Progestasert

(3)

Progestasert, LNG-20

(4)

Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A gene locus has two alleles A. a if the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4. then what will be the frequency homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

(1)

0.36(AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)

(2)

0.16(AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

(3)

0.16(AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

(4)

0.16(AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is true for Golden rice?

(1)

it Is vitamin a enriched, with a gene from daffodil.

(2)

it is pest resistant, with a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis.

(3)

It is drought tolerant, developed using Agrobacterium vector

(4)

It has yellow grains, because of a gene introduced from a primitive variety of rice

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because:

(1)

Its embryo is immature.

(2)

It has obligate association with mycorrhizae

(3)

It has very hard seed coat.

(4)

Its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent germination.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B
154
Transport in Plants

Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DN Technology ?

(1)

Genetic code is not ambiguous

(2)

Genetic code is redundant

(3)

Genetic code is nearly universal

(4)

Genetic code is specific

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)

Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.

(2)

Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.

(3)

Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread – like hyphae.

(4)

Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Pila(i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx(ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachia(iii) Radula
(d) Taenia(iv) Malpighian tubules
(1)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2)

(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4)

(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to:

(1)

Plasmodium vivax / UTt test

(2)

Streptococcus pneumonic / Widal test

(3)

Salmonella typhi / Anthrome test

(4)

Novel DNA sequences

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1)

Viruses are obligate parasites

(2)

prions consist of abnormally folded proteins

(3)

Viroids lack a protein coat

(4)

Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat

Show answer & solution
Answer: D
161
Transport in Plants

Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin – dependent?

(1)

GLUT I

(2)

GLUT II

(3)

GLUT III

(4)

GLUT IV

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of Kidney graft?

(1)

Humoral immune response

(2)

Humoral immune response

(3)

Inflammatory immune response

(4)

Cell-mediated immune response

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

use of an artificial kidney during hemotiayis may result in:

(1)

Non-elimination of excess potassium from gastro-intestinal tract

(2)

Reduced absorption of calcium from gastro-intestinal tract

(3)

Nitrogenous waste build-up in the bod

(4)

Reduced RBC production Which of the following options is the correct appropriate? (1) (a) and (d) are correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct (3) (b) and (c) are correct (4) (c) and (d) are correct

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following statements is correct?

(1)

Cornea is an external, transparent and protective proteinaceous covering of the eye – ball.

(2)

Cornea consists of dense connective tissue of elastin and can repair itself.

(3)

Cornea is convex, transparent layer which is highly vascularized.

(4)

Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen and is the most sensitive portion of the eye.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes was explained by:

(1)

T.H. Morgan

(2)

Gregor J. Mendel

(3)

Alfred Sturtevant

(4)

Sutton Boveri

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) i gene(i) β - galactosidase
(b) z gene(ii) Permease
(c) a gene(iii) Repressor
(d) y gene(iv) Transacetylase
(1)

(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2)

(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3)

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produces flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induces flowering in pineapple plate throughout the year to increase yield

(1)

Auxin and Ethylene

(2)

Gibberellin and Cytokinin

(3)

Gibberellin and Abscisic acid

(4)

Cytokinin and Abscisic acid

Show answer & solution
Answer: A
168
Transport in Plants

identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro -intestinal tract from various enzymes.

(1)

Duodenal Cells

(2)

Oxyntic Cells

(3)

Goblet Cells

(4)

Chief Cells

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease?

(1)

Trichoderma

(2)

Chlorella

(3)

Anabaena

(4)

Lactobacillus

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:

(1)

Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(2)

Sieve tubes only

(3)

Companion cells only

(4)

Both sieve tubes and companion cells

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs:

(1)

after entry of sperm but before fertilization

(2)

after fertilization

(3)

before entry of sperm into ovum

(4)

simultaneously with first cleavage

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Coder which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA? 5” AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3”

(1)

Insertion of G at 5th position

(2)

Deletion of G from 5th position

(3)

Insertion of A and G at 4 th and 5 th positions respectively

(4)

Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development. Gynaecomastia and is sterile?

(1)

Turne’s syndrome

(2)

Klinefelter ‘s syndrome

(3)

Edward syndrome

(4)

Down s syndrome

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good material for:

(1)

making plastic sacks

(2)

use as a fertilizer

(3)

construction of roads

(4)

making tubes and pipes

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?

(1)

Shoot the waste into space

(2)

Bury the waste under Antarctic ice – cover

(3)

Dump the waste within rocks under deep ocean

(4)

Bur the waste within rocks deep below the Earth’s surface

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the correct option

(1)

8𝑡ℎ, 9𝑡ℎ and 10𝑡ℎ pairs of ribs articulate directly with the sternum.

(2)

11𝑡ℎ and 12𝑡ℎ pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

(3)

Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs are connected dorsally to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.

(4)

There are seven pairs of vertehrosternal, three pairs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2019 Question Paper, Code P1. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.