NEET PYQs · 2018 · Code HH

NEET 2018 — Code HH

Official NTA NEET-UG 2018 question paper, set HH. 174 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.

Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1)

250 Ω

(2)

40 Ω

(3)

500 Ω ACHLA/AA/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

25 Ω

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0·5 kg m – 1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 ° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1)

14·76 A

(2)

7·14 A

(3)

11·32 A

(4)

5·98 A

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μ F and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1)

2·74 W

(2)

0·79 W

(3)

1·13 W

(4)

0·43 W

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1)

the lattice structure of the material of the rod

(2)

the current source

(3)

the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

(4)

the magnetic field

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30 ° . One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

(1)

30 °

(2)

60 °

(3)

zero

(4)

45 °

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity → V = V ^ i . The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

(1)

– y direction

(2)

+ z direction

(3)

– x direction

(4)

– z direction

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

(1)

30 cm towards the mirror

(2)

30 cm away from the mirror

(3)

36 cm towards the mirror

(4)

36 cm away from the mirror

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

An electron of mass m with an initial velocity → V = V 0 ^ i (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field → E = – E 0 ^ i (E 0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ 0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

(1)

λ 0 t

(2)

⎟ ⎟ ⎠ ⎞ ⎜ ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ + λ t mV eE 1 0 0 0

(3)

λ 0

(4)

λ 0 ⎟ ⎟ ⎠ ⎞ ⎜ ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ + t mV eE 1 0 0

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

When the light of frequency 2 v 0 (where v 0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5 v 0 , the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v 2 . The ratio of v 1 to v 2 is

(1)

4 : 1

(2)

1 : 2

(3)

2 : 1 ACHLA/AA/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

1 : 4

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1)

30

(2)

20

(3)

15

(4)

10

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

(1)

2 : – 1

(2)

1 : – 1

(3)

1 : – 2

(4)

1 : 1

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘ μ ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ?

(1)

i = sin – 1 ⎟ ⎟ ⎠ ⎞ ⎜ ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ μ 1

(2)

Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

(3)

i = tan – 1 ⎟ ⎟ ⎠ ⎞ ⎜ ⎜ ⎝ ⎛ μ 1

(4)

Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0·20 ° . To increase the fringe angular width to 0·21 ° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1)

2·1 mm

(2)

1·8 mm

(3)

1·7 mm

(4)

1·9 mm

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1)

large focal length and large diameter

(2)

small focal length and large diameter

(3)

small focal length and small diameter

(4)

large focal length and small diameter

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ 0 . If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 4 3 λ 0 , the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

(1)

81 256

(2)

4 3

(3)

256 81

(4)

3 4

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Δ l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

(1)

4 F

(2)

9 F

(3)

F

(4)

6 F

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1)

r 5

(2)

r 3

(3)

r 4

(4)

r 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100 ° C and normal pressure (1·013 × 10 5 Nm – 2 ) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100 ° C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

(1)

42·2 J

(2)

104·3 J

(3)

84·5 J ACHLA/AA/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

208·7 J

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K A , K B and K C , respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

(1)

K B < K A < K C

(2)

K A > K B > K C

(3)

K B > K A > K C

(4)

K A < K B < K C

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio K t : (K t + K r ) for the sphere is

(1)

10 : 7

(2)

7 : 10

(3)

2 : 5

(4)

5 : 7

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere ?

(1)

Rotational kinetic energy

(2)

Angular velocity

(3)

Angular momentum

(4)

Moment of inertia

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct ?

(1)

Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

(2)

Raindrops will fall faster.

(3)

‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

(4)

Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The moment of the force, → F = 4 ^ i + 5 ^ j – 6 ^ k at (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by

(1)

– 7 ^ i – 8 ^ j – 4 ^ k

(2)

– 8 ^ i – 4 ^ j – 7 ^ k

(3)

– 7 ^ i – 4 ^ j – 8 ^ k

(4)

– 4 ^ i – ^ j – 8 ^ k

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1)

0·053 cm

(2)

0·521 cm

(3)

0·529 cm ACHLA/AA/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

0·525 cm

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure . The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

(1)

a = g cos θ

(2)

a = θ ec cos g

(3)

a = g tan θ

(4)

a = θ sin g

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field → E . Due to the force q , E → its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

(1)

1 m/s, 3·5 m/s

(2)

2 m/s, 4 m/s

(3)

1·5 m/s, 3 m/s

(4)

1 m/s, 3 m/s

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27 ° C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27 ° C is

(1)

350 m/s

(2)

330 m/s

(3)

300 m/s

(4)

339 m/s

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

(1)

proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

(2)

independent of the distance between the plates.

(3)

inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

(4)

linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

(1)

10 times greater

(2)

smaller

(3)

equal

(4)

5 times greater

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s 2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

(1)

2 s

(2)

2 π s

(3)

1 s

(4)

π s

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4·7) k Ω is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1)

Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

(2)

Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

(3)

Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

(4)

Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

(1)

20

(2)

10

(3)

9

(4)

11

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from th e Earth’s atmosphere ? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76 × 10 – 26 kg Boltzmann’s constant k B = 1·38 × 10 – 23 J K – 1 )

(1)

5·016 × 10 4 K

(2)

2·508 × 10 4 K

(3)

1·254 × 10 4 K

(4)

8·360 × 10 4 K

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1)

3 1

(2)

5 2

(3)

7 2

(4)

3 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

(1)

12·5 cm

(2)

13·2 cm

(3)

16 cm

(4)

8 cm

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1)

6·25%

(2)

26·8%

(3)

12·5%

(4)

20%

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1)

0·8

(2)

0·5

(3)

0·4

(4)

0·25

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

(1)

5 7 D

(2)

2 3 D

(3)

4 5 D

(4)

D

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1)

W B > W A > W C

(2)

W C > W B > W A

(3)

W A > W C > W B

(4)

W A > W B > W C

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1)

Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

(2)

Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

(3)

Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

(4)

Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

(1)

B A . + A . B

(2)

B A .

(3)

B A +

(4)

A . – B + – A . B

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage V i is 20 V, V BE = 0 and V CE = 0. The values of I B , I C and β are given by

(1)

I B = 20 μ A, I C = 5 mA, β = 250

(2)

I B = 40 μ A, I C = 10 mA, β = 250

(3)

I B = 40 μ A, I C = 5 mA, β = 125

(4)

I B = 25 μ A, I C = 5 mA, β = 200

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1)

does not affect resistance of p-n junction

(2)

affects only reverse resistance

(3)

affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

(4)

affects only forward resistance

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column IColumn II
a. Herbariumi. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
b. Keyii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.
c. Museumiii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.
d. Catalogueiv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

a b c d

(1)

iii iv i ii

(2)

ii iv iii i

(3)

iii ii i iv

(4)

i iv iii ii

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I Column II a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle a b c

(1)

ii i iii

(2)

iii i ii

(3)

i iii ii

(4)

i ii iii

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone ?

(1)

Estradiol

(2)

Epinephrine

(3)

Estriol

(4)

Ecdysone

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ?

(1)

Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

(2)

Aldosterone and Prolactin

(3)

Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

(4)

Progesterone and Aldosterone

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1)

Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

(2)

Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

(3)

Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres. ACHLA/AA/Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

(1)

smooth muscles attached to the iris

(2)

ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(3)

smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

(4)

ligaments attached to the iris

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?

(1)

ACCUAUGCGAU

(2)

AGGUAUCGCAU

(3)

UCCAUAGCGUA

(4)

UGGTUTCGCAT

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

All of the following are part of an operon except

(1)

an enhancer

(2)

an operator

(3)

a promoter

(4)

structural genes

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

(1)

Only grandchildren

(2)

Only daughters

(3)

Both sons and daughters

(4)

Only sons

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column IColumn II
a. Eutrophicationi. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfillii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindnessiii. Nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivationiv. Waste disposal

a b c d

(1)

ii i iii iv

(2)

iii iv i ii

(3)

i iii iv ii

(4)

i ii iv iii

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

(1)

Phenotypic variations

(2)

Multiple step mutations

(3)

Minor mutations

(4)

Saltation

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

(1)

Brain of bat, man and cheetah

(2)

Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

(3)

Eye of octopus, bat and man

(4)

Heart of bat, man and cheetah

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

(1)

Convergent evolution

(2)

Homology

(3)

Adaptive radiation

(4)

Analogy

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ?

(1)

A lzheimer’s disease

(2)

Psoriasis

(3)

Vitiligo

(4)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance

(1)

b, d and e

(2)

b, c and e

(3)

a, c and e

(4)

a, b and c

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

(1)

Vitamin B 12

(2)

Vitamin D

(3)

Vitamin E

(4)

Vitamin A

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels ?

(1)

Ringworm disease

(2)

Elephantiasis

(3)

Amoebiasis

(4)

Ascariasis

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

All of the following are included in ‘Ex -situ conservation’ except

(1)

Botanical gardens

(2)

Wildlife safari parks

(3)

Seed banks

(4)

Sacred groves

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I Column II a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase a b c

(1)

iii ii i

(2)

ii iii i

(3)

iii i ii ACHLA/AA/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

i iii ii

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In a growing population of a country,

(1)

reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

(2)

pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

(3)

pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.

(4)

reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘‘Smack’’ ?

(1)

Roots

(2)

Flowers

(3)

Leaves

(4)

Latex

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics ?

(1)

Parasitism

(2)

Commensalism

(3)

Amensalism

(4)

Mutualism

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1)

is an IUD.

(2)

blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

(3)

is a post-coital contraceptive.

(4)

increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

(1)

mesoderm and trophoblast

(2)

ectoderm and mesoderm

(3)

ectoderm and endoderm

(4)

endoderm and mesoderm

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

(1)

In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(2)

In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

(3)

In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

(4)

In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(1)

hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(2)

hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

(3)

hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

(4)

hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below : Column I Column II a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism a b c

(1)

i ii iii

(2)

iii ii i

(3)

ii iii i

(4)

i iii ii

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:

Column IColumn II
a. Tidal volumei. 500 – 550 mL
b. Inspiratory Reserve volumeii. 2500 – 3000 mL
c. Expiratory Reserve volumeiii. 1100 – 1200 mL
d. Residual volumeiv. 1000 – 1100 mL

a b c d

(1)

i iv ii iii

(2)

iii ii i iv

(3)

iv iii ii i

(4)

iii i iv ii

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ?

(1)

Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

(2)

Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(3)

Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

(4)

Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:

Column IColumn II
a. Glycosuriai. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Goutii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculiiii. Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular nephritisiv. Presence of glucose in urine

a b c d

(1)

ii iii i iv

(2)

iii ii iv i

(3)

i ii iii iv

(4)

iv i ii iii

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1)

Botulism

(2)

Anthracis

(3)

Emphysema

(4)

Silicosis

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(1)

detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

(2)

binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

(3)

prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament. ACHLA/AA/Page 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis ?

(1)

Goblet cells

(2)

Chief cells

(3)

Parietal cells

(4)

Mucous cells

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm ?

(1)

Camelus

(2)

Macropus

(3)

Psittacula

(4)

Chelone

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

(1)

Aves

(2)

Amphibia

(3)

Osteichthyes

(4)

Reptilia

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

(1)

using pseudopodia for capturing prey

(2)

using flagella for locomotion

(3)

having two types of nuclei

(4)

having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis ?

(1)

Moth

(2)

Earthworm

(3)

Starfish

(4)

Tunicate

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ?

(1)

Cyanobacteria

(2)

Dinoflagellates

(3)

Euglenoids ACHLA/AA/Page 19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

Diatoms

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?

(1)

Forewings with darker tegmina

(2)

Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9 th abdominal segment

(3)

Presence of anal cerci

(4)

Presence of caudal styles

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

(1)

Nucleic acids and SER

(2)

Proteins and lipids

(3)

Free ribosomes and RER

(4)

DNA and RNA

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum ?

(1)

Cleavage of signal peptide

(2)

Protein folding

(3)

Phospholipid synthesis

(4)

Protein glycosylation

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of these statements is incorrect ?

(1)

Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

(2)

Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

(3)

Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

(4)

Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following terms describe human dentition ?

(1)

Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

(2)

Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

(3)

Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

(4)

Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

(1)

Plastidome

(2)

Polysome

(3)

Nucleosome

(4)

Polyhedral bodies

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the incorrect match :

(1)

Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes chromosomes

(2)

Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes

(3)

Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians chromosomes

(4)

Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Pneumatophores occur in

(1)

Carnivorous plants

(2)

Halophytes

(3)

Submerged hydrophytes

(4)

Free-floating hydrophytes

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Sweet potato is a modified

(1)

Tap root

(2)

Stem

(3)

Rhizome

(4)

Adventitious root

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1)

Horsetails are gymnosperms.

(2)

Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

(3)

Stems are usually unbranched in both Cyca s and Cedrus.

(4)

Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Casparian strips occur in

(1)

Cortex

(2)

Epidermis

(3)

Endodermis

(4)

Pericycle

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

(1)

Phellogen

(2)

Apical meristems

(3)

Axillary meristems

(4)

Vascular cambium

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the wrong statement :

(1)

Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

(2)

Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

(3)

Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

(4)

Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Plants having little or no secondary growth are

(1)

Conifers

(2)

Grasses

(3)

Cycads

(4)

Deciduous angiosperms

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

(1)

XO type sex : Grasshopper determination

(2)

Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

(3)

T.H. Morgan : Linkage

(4)

ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the correct statement :

(1)

Spliceosomes take part in translation.

(2)

Franklin S tahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.

(3)

Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

(4)

Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

(1)

Plant

(2)

Fungus

(3)

Virus

(4)

Bacterium

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the correct match :

(1)

Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

(2)

G. Mendel – Transformation

(3)

F 2 × Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

(4)

T.H. Morgan – Transduction

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Offsets are produced by

(1)

Parthenocarpy

(2)

Meiotic divisions

(3)

Parthenogenesis

(4)

Mitotic divisions

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time ?

(1)

Mango

(2)

Bamboo species

(3)

Papaya

(4)

Jackfruit

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

(1)

Oil content

(2)

Pollenkitt

(3)

Cellulosic intine

(4)

Sporopollenin ACHLA/AA/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1)

16 th September

(2)

5 th June

(3)

22 nd April

(4)

21 st April

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Natality refers to

(1)

Number of individuals leaving the habitat

(2)

Death rate

(3)

Number of individuals entering a habitat

(4)

Birth rate

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ? Secondary consumer : 120 g Primary consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g

(1)

Upright pyramid of numbers

(2)

Inverted pyramid of biomass

(3)

Upright pyramid of biomass

(4)

Pyramid of energy

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

(1)

SO 2

(2)

CO

(3)

O 3

(4)

CO 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Niche is

(1)

the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

(2)

all the biological factors in the organism’s environment

(3)

the functional role played by the organism where it lives

(4)

the physical space where an organism lives

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

(1)

Fe

(2)

Carbon

(3)

Oxygen

(4)

Cl

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

(1)

Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

(2)

Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

(3)

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

(4)

Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

(1)

Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

(2)

Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(3)

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

(4)

Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

(1)

λ phage

(2)

Retrovirus

(3)

pBR 322

(4)

Ti plasmid

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

(1)

Biodegradation

(2)

Bio-infringement

(3)

Bioexploitation

(4)

Biopiracy

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

(1)

Lerma Rojo

(2)

Co-667

(3)

Basmati

(4)

Sharbati Sonora

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Select the correct match :

(1)

Alfred Hershey and – TMV Martha Chase

(2)

Francois Jacob and – Lac operon Jacques Monod

(3)

Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum and F. Stahl

(4)

Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells ?

(1)

Potassium

(2)

Magnesium

(3)

Calcium

(4)

Sodium

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other ?

(1)

Banana

(2)

Hydrilla

(3)

Viola

(4)

Yucca

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1)

– 196 ° C

(2)

– 120 ° C

(3)

– 160 ° C

(4)

– 80 ° C

Show answer & solution
Answer: A
120
Reproduction in Organisms

Double fertilization is

(1)

Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

(2)

Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

(3)

Syngamy and triple fusion

(4)

Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

(1)

Cycas

(2)

Green sulphur bacteria

(3)

Chara

(4)

Nostoc

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

What is the role of NAD + in cellular respiration ?

(1)

It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

(2)

It functions as an enzyme.

(3)

It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

(4)

It functions as an electron carrier.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D
123
Mineral Nutrition

In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ?

(1)

Free element

(2)

Ferric

(3)

Both ferric and ferrous ACHLA/AA/Page 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

Ferrous

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The Golgi complex participates in

(1)

Respiration in bacteria

(2)

Fatty acid breakdown

(3)

Activation of amino acid

(4)

Formation of secretory vesicles

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

(1)

carbonyl and phosphate

(2)

hydroxyl and methyl

(3)

carbonyl and hydroxyl

(4)

carbonyl and methyl

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

(1)

Nostoc

(2)

Saccharomyces

(3)

Oscillatoria

(4)

Mycobacterium

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Stomatal movement is not affected by

(1)

O 2 concentration

(2)

Temperature

(3)

CO 2 concentration

(4)

Light

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1)

NADPH

(2)

ATP

(3)

Oxygen

(4)

NADH

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?

(1)

It takes part in spindle formation.

(2)

Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

(3)

It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(4)

It is a membrane-bound structure.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

(1)

Diakinesis

(2)

Pachytene

(3)

Zygotene

(4)

Diplotene

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Stomata in grass leaf are

(1)

Rectangular

(2)

Dumb-bell shaped

(3)

Kidney shaped

(4)

Barrel shaped ACHLA/AA/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:

Column I (Function)Column II (Part of Excretory System)
a. Ultrafiltrationi. Henle’s loop
b. Concentrationii. Ureter
of urine
c. Transport ofiii. Urinary bladder
urine
d. Storage of urineiv. Malpighian corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule

a b c d

(1)

v iv i iii

(2)

iv i ii iii

(3)

v iv i ii

(4)

iv v ii iii

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which one is wrongly matched ?

(1)

Gemma cups – Marchantia

(2)

Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

(3)

Unicellular organism – Chlorella ACHLA/AA/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

Show answer & solution
Answer: B
134
Reproduction in Organisms

After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(1)

Agaricus

(2)

Neurospora

(3)

Saccharomyces

(4)

Alternaria

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Winged pollen grains are present in

(1)

Mango

(2)

Mustard

(3)

Pinus

(4)

Cycas

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum ?

(1)

0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

(2)

18 mL of water

(3)

10 – 3 mol of water

(4)

0·18 g of water

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

(1)

a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

(2)

the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

(3)

the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

(4)

the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below : Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

(1)

Br 2

(2)

Br – 3 O

(3)

HBrO

(4)

Br – 4 O

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Among CaH 2 , BeH 2 , BaH 2 , the order of ionic character is

(1)

BeH 2 < BaH 2 < CaH 2

(2)

BeH 2 < CaH 2 < BaH 2

(3)

BaH 2 < BeH 2 < CaH 2

(4)

CaH 2 < BeH 2 < BaH 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

(1)

– 4 MnO

(2)

– 2 4 CrO

(3)

– 2 4 MnO

(4)

– 2 7 2 O Cr

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO) 5 is

(1)

trinuclear

(2)

tetranuclear

(3)

dinuclear

(4)

mononuclear

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:

Column IColumn II
a. Co³⁺i. 8 B.M.
b. Cr³⁺ii. 3.5 B.M.
c. Fe³⁺iii. 3 B.M.
d. Ni²⁺iv. 2.4 B.M.
v. 1.5 B.M.

a b c d

(1)

iv i ii iii

(2)

iv v ii i

(3)

iii v i ii

(4)

i ii iii iv

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO) 4 ] are

(1)

square planar geometry and paramagnetic

(2)

square planar geometry and diamagnetic

(3)

tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

(4)

tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl 2 (en) 2 ] is

(1)

Ionization isomerism

(2)

Geometrical isomerism

(3)

Linkage isomerism

(4)

Coordination isomerism

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

(1)

Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α -linkage and 1 → 6 β -linkage

(2)

Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α -linkage and 1 → 6 α -linkage

(3)

Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

(4)

Amylose have 1 → 4 α -linkage and 1 → 6 β -linkage

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1)

Examples are bakelite and melamine.

(2)

They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

(3)

They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

(4)

They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

(1)

In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

(2)

In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

(3)

In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

(4)

In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

(1)

BaO

(2)

MgO

(3)

CaO

(4)

BeO

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H 2 SO 4 . The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

(1)

2·8

(2)

1·4

(3)

4·4

(4)

3·0

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

(1)

CH 3 – CH 3

(2)

CH ≡ CH

(3)

CH 4 ACHLA/AA/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

CH 2 = CH 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: C
151
Environmental Chemistry

Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity ?

(1)

N 2 O

(2)

N 2 O 5

(3)

NO

(4)

NO 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The compound C 7 H 8 undergoes the following reactions : The product ‘C’ is

(1)

3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

(2)

m -bromotoluene

(3)

p -bromotoluene

(4)

o -bromotoluene

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1)

C 2 H 5 Cl, C 2 H 6 , C 2 H 5 OH

(2)

C 2 H 5 OH, C 2 H 6 , C 2 H 5 Cl

(3)

C 2 H 5 OH, C 2 H 5 ONa, C 2 H 5 Cl

(4)

C 2 H 5 OH, C 2 H 5 Cl, C 2 H 5 ONa

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

(1)

– NH 2 > – OR > – F

(2)

– NH 2 < – OR < – F

(3)

– NR 2 < – OR < – F

(4)

– NR 2 > – OR > – F

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp 2 , sp 2 , sp, sp from left to right atoms ?

(1)

CH 2 = CH – CH = CH 2

(2)

HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

(3)

CH 3 – CH = CH – CH 3

(4)

CH 2 = CH – C ≡ CH

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1)

more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

(2)

formation of intramolecular H-bonding

(3)

formation of intermolecular H-bonding

(4)

formation of carboxylate ion

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In the reaction the electrophile involved is

(1)

dichloromethyl anion ( )

(2)

dichloromethyl cation ( ⊕ 2 CHCl )

(3)

dichlorocarbene ( : CCl 2 )

(4)

formyl cation ( ⊕ CHO )

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion ?

(1)

Benzoic acid

(2)

Aniline

(3)

Acetanilide

(4)

Glycine ACHLA/AA/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1)

B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

(2)

B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

(3)

B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

(4)

B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one of the following elements is unable to form – 3 6 MF ion ?

(1)

B

(2)

Ga

(3)

In

(4)

Al

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1)

HNO 3 , NH 4 Cl, NO, N 2

(2)

HNO 3 , NO, N 2 , NH 4 Cl

(3)

NH 4 Cl, N 2 , NO, HNO 3

(4)

HNO 3 , NO, NH 4 Cl, N 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following statements is not true for halogens ?

(1)

All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

(2)

All form monobasic oxyacids.

(3)

Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

(4)

All are oxidizing agents.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In the structure of ClF 3 , the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1)

four

(2)

one

(3)

three

(4)

two

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?

(1)

Mg

(2)

Fe

(3)

Cu

(4)

Zn

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

For the redox reaction Mn – 4 O + C 2 – 2 4 O + H + ⎯→ ⎯ Mn 2+ + CO 2 + H 2 O the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are Mn – 4 O – 2 4 2 O C H +

(1)

2 16 5

(2)

16 5 2

(3)

5 16 2

(4)

2 5 16

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

(1)

electric field present between the gas molecules

(2)

density of the gas molecules

(3)

forces of attraction between the gas molecules ACHLA/AA/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

volume of the gas molecules

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction, A 2 (g) + B 2 (g) λ X 2 (g) Δ r H = – X kJ ?

(1)

High temperature and high pressure

(2)

Low temperature and high pressure

(3)

High temperature and low pressure

(4)

Low temperature and low pressure

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

(1)

is tripled

(2)

is halved

(3)

remains unchanged

(4)

is doubled

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Given van der Waals constant for NH 3 , H 2 , O 2 and CO 2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3·59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied ?

(1)

O 2

(2)

NH 3

(3)

CO 2

(4)

H 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations : a. 60 mL 10 M HCl + 40 mL 10 M NaOH b. 55 mL 10 M HCl + 45 mL 10 M NaOH c. 75 mL 5 M HCl + 25 mL 5 M NaOH d. 100 mL 10 M HCl + 100 mL 10 M NaOH pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?

(1)

d

(2)

b

(3)

c

(4)

a

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?

(1)

Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

(2)

The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

(3)

The sign of charge on the ion alone

(4)

Size of the ion alone

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The solubility of BaSO 4 in water is 2·42 × 10 – 3 gL – 1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (K sp ) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO 4 = 233 g mol – 1 )

(1)

1·08 × 10 – 14 mol 2 L – 2

(2)

1·08 × 10 – 10 mol 2 L – 2

(3)

1·08 × 10 – 8 mol 2 L – 2 ACHLA/AA/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4)

1·08 × 10 – 12 mol 2 L – 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s 2 2s 2 2p 3 , the simplest formula for this compound is

(1)

Mg 2 X

(2)

Mg 2 X 3

(3)

Mg 3 X 2

(4)

MgX 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900 ° C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900 ° C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

(1)

2 4 3 3

(2)

2 3

(3)

2 1

(4)

2 3 3 4

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one is a wrong statement ?

(1)

The electronic configuration of N atom is

(2)

Total orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.

(3)

The value of m for 2 z d is zero.

(4)

An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Consider the following species : CN + , CN – , NO and CN Which one of these will have the highest bond order ?

(1)

CN –

(2)

NO

(3)

CN

(4)

CN +

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Run NEET 2018 as a real exam.

Sign up free to take this paper as a 3h 20min timed mock with full question palette and live timer, get a chapter-wise score breakdown, and predict your NEET 2027 score from real PYQ accuracy.

Free 14-day trial · No credit card · Cancel anytime

Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2018 Question Paper, Code HH. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.