NEET PYQs · 2020 · Code HAKAN-F4

NEET 2020 — Code HAKAN-F4

Official NTA NEET-UG 2020 question paper, set HAKAN-F4. 174 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r 1 and r 2 (r 1 = 1.5 r 2 ) through 1 K are in the ratio :

(1)

3 2

(2)

5 3

(3)

27 8

(4)

9 4

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Answer: C

Find the torque about the origin when a force of ∧ 3 N j acts on a particle whose position vector is 2 m k ∧ .

(1)

6 N m i ∧

(2)

6 N m k ∧

(3)

6 N m i ∧ −

(4)

6 N m j ∧

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Answer: A

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct ?

(1)

Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

(2)

The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(3)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.

(4)

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.

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Answer: B

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s 2 )

(1)

320 m

(2)

300 m

(3)

360 m

(4)

340 m

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Answer: A

The Brewsters angle i b for an interface should be :

(1)

45 8 < i b < 90 8

(2)

i b = 90 8

(3)

0 8 < i b < 30 8

(4)

30 8 < i b < 45 8

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Answer: A

For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :

(1)

A B Y 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0

(2)

A B Y 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 - o 0 o -

(3)

A B Y 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1

(4)

A B Y 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1

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Answer: C

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are :

(1)

semiconductors only

(2)

insulators and semiconductors

(3)

metals

(4)

insulators only

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Answer: B

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to :

(1)

both forward bias and reverse bias

(2)

increase in forward current

(3)

forward bias only

(4)

reverse bias only

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Answer: D

Dimensions of stress are :

(1)

[ M L 0 T − 2 ]

(2)

[ M L − 1 T − 2 ]

(3)

[ M L T − 2 ]

(4)

[ M L 2 T − 2 ]

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Answer: B

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m − 0.0099 m ?

(1)

9.980 m

(2)

9.9 m

(3)

9.9801 m

(4)

9.98 m

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Answer: D

In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be :

(1)

536 Hz

(2)

537 Hz

(3)

523 Hz

(4)

524 Hz

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Answer: C

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is μ , then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to :

(1)

μ A

(2)

A 2 μ

(3)

A 2 μ

(4)

2A μ

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Answer: A

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 μ F. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μ F. The permittivity of the medium is : ( ȏ 0 = 8.85 × 10 − 12 C 2 N − 1 m − 2 )

(1)

0.44 × 10 − 10 C 2 N − 1 m − 2

(2)

5.00 C 2 N − 1 m − 2

(3)

0.44 × 10 − 13 C 2 N − 1 m − 2

(4)

77 × 10 − 12 C 2 N − 1 m − 2

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Answer: D

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :

(1)

67 cm

(2)

80 cm

(3)

33 cm

(4)

50 cm

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Answer: A

In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes :

(1)

four times

(2)

one-fourth

(3)

double

(4)

half

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Answer: A

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m − 1 . The permeability of the material of the rod is : ( μ 0 = 4 π× 10 − 7 T m A − 1 )

(1)

4 π× 10 − 5 T m A − 1

(2)

4 π× 10 − 7 T m A − 1

(3)

4 π× 10 − 4 T m A − 1

(4)

8.0 × 10 − 5 T m A − 1

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Answer: A

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic waves)

(1)

1 : c

(2)

1 : c 2

(3)

c : 1

(4)

1 : 1

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Answer: C

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :

(1)

rad 2 π

(2)

zero

(3)

π rad

(4)

3 rad 2 π

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Answer: A

A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L 1 when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is :

(1)

1 MgL AL

(2)

1 MgL A(L L) −

(3)

1 MgL AL

(4)

1 Mg(L L) AL −

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Answer: D

The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter d and number density n can be expressed as :

(1)

2 2 1 2 n d π

(2)

2 2 2 1 2 n d π

(3)

1 2 n d π

(4)

2 1 2 n d π

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Answer: C

The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :

(1)

5 × 10 13 J

(2)

0.5 × 10 13 J

(3)

5 × 10 16 J

(4)

5 × 10 13 J

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Answer: A

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is 1.227 × 10 − 2 nm, the potential difference is :

(1)

10 3 V

(2)

10 4 V

(3)

10 V

(4)

10 2 V

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Answer: C

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 × 10 − 9 C m. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of 60 8 with the dipole axis is : 9 2 2 0 1 9 10 N m /C 4       = × πȏ

(1)

400 V

(2)

zero

(3)

50 V

(4)

200 V

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Answer: D

A 40 μ F capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly :

(1)

5 A

(2)

25.1 A

(3)

7 A

(4)

05 A

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Answer: C

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

(1)

B 5 k T 2

(2)

B 7 k T 2

(3)

B 1 k T 2

(4)

B 3 k T 2

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Answer: D

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :

(1)

g/5

(2)

g/10

(3)

g

(4)

g/2

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Answer: A

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :

(1)

7.32 × 10 − 7 rad

(2)

6.00 × 10 − 7 rad

(3)

66 × 10 − 7 rad

(4)

83 × 10 − 7 rad

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Answer: C

A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27 8 C. Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol − 1 K − 1 )

(1)

0.1 kg/m 3

(2)

0.02 kg/m 3

(3)

0.5 kg/m 3

(4)

0.2 kg/m 3

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Answer: D

The color code of a resistance is given below : The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are :

(1)

7 k Ω , 5%

(2)

470 Ω , 5%

(3)

470 k Ω , 5%

(4)

47 k Ω , 10%

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Answer: C

Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity ( ρ ) with temperature (T) for copper ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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Answer: A

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is :

(1)

isochoric

(2)

isobaric

(3)

isothermal

(4)

adiabatic

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Answer: C

When a uranium isotope 235 92 U is bombarded with a neutron, it generates 89 36 Kr , three neutrons and :

(1)

1 10 36 Kr

(2)

103 36 Kr

(3)

144 56 Ba

(4)

91 40 Zr

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Answer: C

A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10 − 4 m s − 1 in an electric field of 3 × 10 − 10 Vm − 1 , has a mobility in m 2 V − 1 s − 1 of :

(1)

5 × 10 − 6

(2)

25 × 10 − 15

(3)

25 × 10 15

(4)

5 × 10 6

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Answer: D

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm 2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is :

(1)

24 × 10 3 J

(2)

48 × 10 3 J

(3)

10 × 10 3 J

(4)

12 × 10 3 J

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Answer: A

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid ?

(1)

Deuteron atom

(2)

Singly ionised neon atom (Ne + )

(3)

Hydrogen atom

(4)

Singly ionised helium atom (He + )

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Answer: B

A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 × 10 − 7 C distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere ? 9 2 2 0 1 9 10 N m /C 4       = × πȏ

(1)

28 × 10 6 N/C

(2)

28 × 10 7 N/C

(3)

28 × 10 4 N/C

(4)

28 × 10 5 N/C

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Answer: D

The energy required to break one bond in DNA is 10 − 20 J. This value in eV is nearly :

(1)

0.06

(2)

0.006

(3)

6

(4)

0.6

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Answer: A

In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m 3 , the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is :

(1)

1 N/C

(2)

5 N/C

(3)

zero

(4)

0.5 N/C

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Answer: C

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is : ( μ 0 = 4 π× 10 − 7 T m A − 1 )

(1)

6.28 × 10 − 5 T

(2)

14 × 10 − 5 T

(3)

6.28 × 10 − 4 T

(4)

14 × 10 − 4 T

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Answer: C

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?

(1)

one-fourth

(2)

zero

(3)

doubled

(4)

four times

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Answer: C

A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is :

(1)

10.0 g

(2)

20.0 g

(3)

5 g

(4)

5.0 g

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Answer: A

A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth ?

(1)

30 N

(2)

24 N

(3)

48 N

(4)

32 N

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Answer: C

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is 3 π . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again 3 π between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

(1)

0

(2)

− 1.0

(3)

zero

(4)

0.5

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Answer: C

The ovary is half inferior in :

(1)

Sunflower

(2)

Plum

(3)

Brinjal

(4)

Mustard

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Answer: C

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

(1)

They are useful in genetic engineering.

(2)

Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

(3)

Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

(4)

They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

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Answer: C

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(1)

Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(2)

Low pCO 2 in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.

(3)

Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O 2 .

(4)

Partial pressure of CO 2 can interfere with O 2 binding with haemoglobin.

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Answer: A

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by :

(1)

wind and water

(2)

insects and water

(3)

insects or wind

(4)

water currents only

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Answer: B

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately :

(1)

2 meters

(2)

7 meters

(3)

0 meters

(4)

5 meters

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Answer: A

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during :

(1)

Diplotene

(2)

Leptotene

(3)

Pachytene

(4)

Zygotene

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Answer: A

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Iron(i) Photolysis of water
(b) Zinc(ii) Pollen germination
(c) Boron(iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis
(d) Manganese(iv) IAA biosynthesis
(1)

(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2)

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3)

(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4)

(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

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Answer: B

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at :

(1)

Nucellus

(2)

Chalaza

(3)

Hilum

(4)

Micropyle

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Answer: C

In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1)

Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.

(2)

There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.

(3)

Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.

(4)

Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.

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Answer: D

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action ? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1)

(b), (c) and (d)

(2)

only (d)

(3)

only (a)

(4)

(a) and (c)

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Answer: D

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

(1)

Ileum is a highly coiled part.

(2)

Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.

(3)

Ileum opens into small intestine.

(4)

Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.

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Answer: A

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :

(1)

Ammonia and oxygen

(2)

Ammonia and hydrogen

(3)

Ammonia alone

(4)

Nitrate alone

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Answer: B

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features : (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath. (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue. (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. (d) Phloem parenchyma absent. Identify the category of plant and its part :

(1)

Dicotyledonous stem

(2)

Dicotyledonous root

(3)

Monocotyledonous stem

(4)

Monocotyledonous root

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Answer: C

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by :

(1)

Aschelminthes

(2)

Annelida

(3)

Ctenophora

(4)

Platyhelminthes

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Answer: D

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from :

(1)

Chondrocytes

(2)

Compound epithelial cells

(3)

Squamous epithelial cells

(4)

Columnar epithelial cells

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Answer: D

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population ?

(1)

Mortality

(2)

Species interaction

(3)

Sex ratio

(4)

Natality

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Answer: B

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by :

(1)

Charles Darwin

(2)

Oparin

(3)

Karl Ernst von Baer

(4)

Alfred Wallace

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Answer: C

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals ?

(1)

Lectin

(2)

Insulin

(3)

Haemoglobin

(4)

Collagen

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Answer: D

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Eosinophils(i) Immune response
(b) Basophils(ii) Phagocytosis
(c) Neutrophils(iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes
(d) Lymphocytes(iv) Release granules containing histamine
(1)

(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2)

(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3)

(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4)

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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Answer: D

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle ?

(1)

Low concentration of LH

(2)

Low concentration of FSH

(3)

High concentration of Estrogen

(4)

High concentration of Progesterone

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Answer: C

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :

(1)

Palindromic sequence

(2)

Recognition site

(3)

Selectable marker

(4)

Ori site

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Answer: D

The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other : (a) Pollen grains inside the anther (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (c) Seed inside the fruit (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1)

(c) and (d)

(2)

(a) and (d)

(3)

(a) only

(4)

(a), (b) and (c)

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Answer: B

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - IColumn - II
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits(i) Trygon
(b) Heterocercal caudal fin(ii) Cyclostomes
(c) Air Bladder(iii) Chondrichthyes
(d) Poison sting(iv) Osteichthyes
(1)

(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(2)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3)

(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(4)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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Answer: C

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are :

(1)

Prop roots

(2)

Lateral roots

(3)

Fibrous roots

(4)

Primary roots

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Answer: D

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.

(1)

When I A and I B are present together, they express same type of sugar.

(2)

Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.

(3)

The gene (I) has three alleles.

(4)

A person will have only two of the three alleles.

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Answer: A

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis ?

(1)

Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

(2)

Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

(3)

More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

(4)

Reabsorption of Na + and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

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Answer: D

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of :

(1)

Release of Green House gases

(2)

Disposal of e-wastes

(3)

Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

(4)

Emission of ozone depleting substances

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Answer: D

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed :

(1)

After zygote formation

(2)

At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

(3)

Prior to ovulation

(4)

At the time of copulation

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams ?

(1)

Cross breeding

(2)

Inbreeding

(3)

Out crossing

(4)

Mutational breeding

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Answer: A

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because :

(1)

the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.

(2)

the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.

(3)

the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.

(4)

the cockroach does not have nervous system.

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Answer: A

Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)

Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.

(2)

Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.

(3)

Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.

(4)

Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.

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Answer: A

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

(1)

AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

(2)

Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

(3)

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

(4)

Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

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Answer: C

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(1)

Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

(2)

Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.

(3)

When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.

(4)

When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called “Passive immunity”.

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Answer: A

Match the following columns:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Bt cotton(i) Gene therapy
(b) Adenosine(ii) Cellular defence deaminase deficiency
(c) RNAi(iii) Detection of HIV infection
(d) PCR(iv) Bacillus thuringiensis
(1)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3)

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1)

Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.

(2)

Adenine does not pair with thymine.

(3)

Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.

(4)

Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.

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Answer: C

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about :

(1)

50 million

(2)

7 million

(3)

5 million

(4)

20 million

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their :

(1)

Defence action

(2)

Effect on reproduction

(3)

Nutritive value

(4)

Growth response

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae ?

(1)

Anabaena and Volvox

(2)

Chlorella and Spirulina

(3)

Laminaria and Sargassum

(4)

Gelidium and Gracilaria

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

(1)

caseinogen into casein

(2)

pepsinogen into pepsin

(3)

protein into polypeptides

(4)

trypsinogen into trypsin

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Match the following columns:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Organ of Corti(i) Located on the basilar membrane
(b) Cochlea(ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube(iii) Connects middle ear and pharynx
(d) Stapes(iv) Attached to the oval window
(1)

(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(2)

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(3)

(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4)

(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is :

(1)

Imbibition

(2)

Plasmolysis

(3)

Transpiration

(4)

Root pressure

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ?

(1)

Effluents of primary treatment

(2)

Activated sludge

(3)

Primary sludge

(4)

Floating debris

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the following diseases with the causative organism:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Typhoid(i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia(ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis(iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria(iv) Haemophilus
(1)

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2)

(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(3)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4)

(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Select the correct statement.

(1)

Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

(2)

Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.

(3)

Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

(4)

Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?

(1)

Ketonuria and Glycosuria

(2)

Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

(3)

Uremia and Ketonuria

(4)

Uremia and Renal Calculi

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following is correct about viroids ?

(1)

They have DNA with protein coat.

(2)

They have free DNA without protein coat.

(3)

They have RNA with protein coat.

(4)

They have free RNA without protein coat.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits ?

(1)

14

(2)

8

(3)

4

(4)

2

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity ?

(1)

Himalayas

(2)

Amazon forests

(3)

Western Ghats of India

(4)

Madagascar

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Match the following and identify the correct option.

Column - IColumn - II
(a) CO(g) + H 2 (g)(i) Mg(HCO 3 ) 2 + Ca(HCO 3 ) 2
(b) Temporary(ii) An electron hardness of deficient hydride water
(c) B 2 H 6(iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H 2 O 2(iv) Non-planar structure
(1)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2)

(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3)

(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(4)

(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Fourth trophic level(i) Crow
(b) Second trophic level(ii) Vulture
(c) First trophic level(iii) Rabbit
(d) Third trophic level(iv) Grass
(1)

(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3)

(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of :

(1)

Industrial melanism

(2)

Natural selection

(3)

Adaptive radiation

(4)

Convergent evolution

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is :

(1)

Two

(2)

Three

(3)

Zero

(4)

One

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1)

The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

(2)

Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-Coli.

(3)

In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.

(4)

The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the following columns:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous(i) Asterias pest
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry(ii) Scorpion
(c) Book lungs(iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence(iv) Locusta
(1)

(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2)

(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4)

(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (G 0 ). This process occurs at the end of :

(1)

S phase

(2)

G 2 phase

(3)

M phase

(4)

G 1 phase

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The process of growth is maximum during :

(1)

Senescence

(2)

Dormancy

(3)

Log phase

(4)

Lag phase

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :

(1)

Depolarisation of ventricles

(2)

Repolarisation of ventricles

(3)

Repolarisation of auricles

(4)

Depolarisation of auricles

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :

(1)

Plant nematodes

(2)

Insect predators

(3)

Insect pests

(4)

Fungal diseases

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive ?

(1)

ICSI and ZIFT

(2)

GIFT and ICSI

(3)

ZIFT and IUT

(4)

GIFT and ZIFT

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Floridean starch has structure similar to :

(1)

Mannitol and algin

(2)

Laminarin and cellulose

(3)

Starch and cellulose

(4)

Amylopectin and glycogen

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

(1)

Ethylene

(2)

Abscisic acid

(3)

Cytokinin

(4)

Gibberellin

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ? (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life. (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only. (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow. (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

(1)

(a) and (b)

(2)

(b) and (c)

(3)

(d) and (c)

(4)

(c) and (a)

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The first phase of translation is :

(1)

Aminoacylation of tRNA

(2)

Recognition of an anti-codon

(3)

Binding of mRNA to ribosome

(4)

Recognition of DNA molecule

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

(1)

Lysine

(2)

Valine

(3)

Tyrosine

(4)

Glutamic Acid

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is :

(1)

Female gametocytes

(2)

Male gametocytes

(3)

Trophozoites

(4)

Sporozoites

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Identify the correct statement with regard to G 1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

(1)

Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

(2)

Nuclear Division takes place.

(3)

DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

(4)

Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :

(1)

PS-I to NADP +

(2)

PS-I to ATP synthase

(3)

PS-II to Cytb 6 f complex

(4)

Cytb 6 f complex to PS-I

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of :

(1)

1 molecule of 6-C compound

(2)

1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

(3)

2 molecules of 3-C compound

(4)

1 molecule of 3-C compound

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?

(1)

Golgi bodies

(2)

Polysomes

(3)

Endoplasmic reticulum

(4)

Peroxisomes

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Match the following :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic(i) Ricin activity
(b) Possess peptide bonds(ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in(iii) Chitin fungi
(d) Secondary metabolite(iv) Collagen
(1)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2)

(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4)

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure :

(1)

Cellulose, lecithin

(2)

Inulin, insulin

(3)

Chitin, cholesterol

(4)

Glycerol, trypsin

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by :

(1)

Boveri

(2)

Morgan

(3)

Mendel

(4)

Sutton

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is :

(1)

5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - GAATTC - 5'

(2)

5' - GGATCC - 3' 3' - CCTAGG - 5'

(3)

5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'

(4)

5' - GGAACC - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

(1)

DNA polymerase

(2)

RNA polymerase

(3)

DNA ligase

(4)

DNA helicase

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the correct match.

(1)

Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

(2)

Thalassemia - X linked

(3)

Haemophilia - Y linked

(4)

Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :

(1)

CH 4 , H 2 , NH 3 and water vapor at 600 8 C

(2)

CH 3 , H 2 , NH 3 and water vapor at 600 8 C

(3)

CH 4 , H 2 , NH 3 and water vapor at 800 8 C

(4)

CH 3 , H 2 , NH 4 and water vapor at 800 8 C

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the following columns:

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Pituitary gland(i) Grave’s disease
(b) Thyroid gland(ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland(iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas(iv) Addison’s disease
(1)

(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2)

(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3)

(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4)

(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in :

(1)

proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

(2)

eustachian tube

(3)

lining of intestine

(4)

ducts of salivary glands

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Strobili or cones are found in :

(1)

Marchantia

(2)

Equisetum

(3)

Salvinia

(4)

Pteris

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :

(1)

High reflection of light from snow

(2)

Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays

(3)

Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

(4)

Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Choose the correct pair from the following :

(1)

Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA

(2)

Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

(3)

Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules

(4)

Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect ?

(1)

They lie free in the cytoplasm.

(2)

These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.

(3)

They are not bound by any membrane.

(4)

These are involved in ingestion of food particles.

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration. (a) Contraction of diaphragm (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

(1)

(a), (b) and (d)

(2)

only (d)

(3)

(a) and (b)

(4)

(c) and (d)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Ray florets have :

(1)

Hypogynous ovary

(2)

Half inferior ovary

(3)

Inferior ovary

(4)

Superior ovary

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Bacillus(i) Cloning vector thuringiensis
(b) Thermus(ii) Construction of aquaticus first rDNA molecule
(c) Agrobacterium(iii) DNA polymerase tumefaciens
(d) Salmonella(iv) Cry proteins typhimurium
(1)

(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4)

(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy ?

(1)

Phenolic acid

(2)

Para-ascorbic acid

(3)

Gibberellic acid

(4)

Abscisic acid

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Match the following with respect to meiosis :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Zygotene(i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene(ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene(iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis(iv) Synapsis
(1)

(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2)

(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4)

(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of :

(1)

Acetocarmine in UV radiation

(2)

Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

(3)

Acetocarmine in bright blue light

(4)

Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following is a natural polymer ?

(1)

polybutadiene

(2)

poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

(3)

cis -1,4-polyisoprene

(4)

poly (Butadiene-styrene)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be :

(1)

H 2 S gas

(2)

SO 2 gas

(3)

Hydrogen gas

(4)

Oxygen gas

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is :

(1)

× 4 288 pm 3

(2)

× 4 288 pm 2

(3)

× 3 288 pm 4

(4)

× 2 288 pm 4

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is :

(1)

q = 0, ∆ T = 0 and w = 0

(2)

q = 0, ∆ T < 0 and w > 0

(3)

q < 0, ∆ T = 0 and w = 0

(4)

q > 0, ∆ T > 0 and w > 0

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment ?

(1)

Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

(2)

Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(3)

Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(4)

Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains 7 g of N 2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N 2 is : [Use atomic masses (in g mol − 1 ) : N = 14, Ar = 40]

(1)

15 bar

(2)

18 bar

(3)

9 bar

(4)

12 bar

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Identify the correct statements from the following : (a) CO 2 (g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food. (b) The structure of C 60 contains twelve six carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings. (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline. (d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.

(1)

(b) and (c) only

(2)

(c) and (d) only

(3)

(a), (b) and (c) only

(4)

(a) and (c) only

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is :

(1)

Acetone + Chloroform

(2)

Chloroethane + Bromoethane

(3)

Ethanol + Acetone

(4)

Benzene + Toluene

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds ?

(1)

− − − − 2 2 4 F < SCN < C O < CN

(2)

− − − − 2 2 4 CN < C O < SCN < F

(3)

− − − − 2 2 4 SCN < F < C O < CN

(4)

− − − − 2 2 4 SCN < F < CN < C O

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which one of the followings has maximum number of atoms ?

(1)

1 g of O 2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

(2)

1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(3)

1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

(4)

1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ?

(1)

n-Heptane

(2)

n-Butane

(3)

n-Hexane

(4)

2,3-Dimethylbutane

Show answer & solution
Answer: D
148
Environmental Chemistry

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide ?

(1)

The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

(2)

It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

(3)

It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

(4)

It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl 2 (g), the correct option is :

(1)

∆ r H > 0 and ∆ r S > 0

(2)

∆ r H > 0 and ∆ r S < 0

(3)

∆ r H < 0 and ∆ r S > 0

(4)

∆ r H < 0 and ∆ r S < 0

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B . B when passed through Cu 2 + (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following ?

(1)

Cu(OH) 2

(2)

CuCO 3 ⋅ Cu(OH) 2

(3)

CuSO 4

(4)

[Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 +

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction. Sucrose + H 2 O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose If the equilibrium constant (K c ) is 2 × 10 13 at 300 K, the value of ∆ r G s at the same temperature will be :

(1)

8.314 J mol − 1 K − 1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 10 13 )

(2)

− 8.314 J mol − 1 K − 1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 10 13 )

(3)

− 8.314 J mol − 1 K − 1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10 13 )

(4)

8.314 J mol − 1 K − 1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 10 13 )

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr 2 + ion is :

(1)

5.92 BM

(2)

84 BM

(3)

87 BM

(4)

90 BM

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution ?

(1)

Stability of the colloidal particles

(2)

Size of the colloidal particles

(3)

Viscosity

(4)

Solubility

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?

(1)

Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(2)

Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(3)

Sodium lauryl sulphate

(4)

Sodium stearate

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH) 2 is 2 × 10 − 15 .

(1)

1 × 10 − 13 M

(2)

1 × 10 8 M

(3)

2 × 10 − 13 M

(4)

2 × 10 − 8 M

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

(1)

Calcium

(2)

Potassium

(3)

Iron

(4)

Copper

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :

(1)

threshold energy

(2)

collision frequency

(3)

activation energy

(4)

heat of reaction

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The rate constant for a first order reaction is 4.606 × 10 − 3 s − 1 . The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :

(1)

500 s

(2)

1000 s

(3)

100 s

(4)

200 s

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl 2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol − 1 ) is :

(1)

3

(2)

4

(3)

1

(4)

2

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Identify the correct statement from the following :

(1)

Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(2)

Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.

(3)

Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.

(4)

Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of CO 2 .

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1)

C 2

(2)

O 2

(3)

He 2

(4)

Li 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following ?

(1)

+ R effect of − CH 3 groups

(2)

Hyperconjugation

(3)

− I effect of − CH 3 groups

(4)

− R effect of − CH 3 groups

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl 2 , MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s) ?

(1)

Only MgCl 2

(2)

NaCl, MgCl 2 and CaCl 2

(3)

Both MgCl 2 and CaCl 2

(4)

Only NaCl

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Identify the incorrect match. Name IUPAC Official Name

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Unnilunium(i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium(ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium(iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium(iv) Darmstadtium
(1)

(c), (iii)

(2)

(d), (iv)

(3)

(a), (i)

(4)

(b), (ii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give :

(1)

Tert. butyl alcohol

(2)

Isobutyl alcohol

(3)

Isopropyl alcohol

(4)

Sec. butyl alcohol

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1)

β -D-Glucose +α -D-Fructose

(2)

α -D-Fructose +β -D-Fructose

(3)

α -D-Glucose +β -D-Fructose

(4)

α -D-Glucose +β -D-Glucose

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Identify the incorrect statement.

(1)

Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

(2)

The oxidation states of chromium in − 2 4 CrO and − 2 2 7 Cr O are not the same.

(3)

Cr 2 + (d 4 ) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe 2 + (d 6 ) in water.

(4)

The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?

(1)

Tyrosine

(2)

Lysine

(3)

Serine

(4)

Alanine

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has − O − O − linkage ?

(1)

H 2 S 2 O 8 , peroxodisulphuric acid

(2)

H 2 S 2 O 7 , pyrosulphuric acid

(3)

H 2 SO 3 , sulphurous acid

(4)

H 2 SO 4 , sulphuric acid

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is : (a) β -Elimination reaction (b) Follows Zaitsev rule (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction (d) Dehydration reaction

(1)

(b), (c), (d)

(2)

(a), (b), (d)

(3)

(a), (b), (c)

(4)

(a), (c), (d)

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Answer: C

Match the following : Oxide Nature

Column - IColumn - II
(a) CO(i) Basic
(b) BaO(ii) Neutral
(c) Al 2 O 3(iii) Acidic
(d) Cl 2 O 7(iv) Amphoteric Which of the following is correct option ?
(1)

(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2)

(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4)

(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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Answer: D

The freezing point depression constant (K f ) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol − 1 . The freezing point depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places) :

(1)

0.40 K

(2)

0.60 K

(3)

0.20 K

(4)

0.80 K

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Answer: A

Paper chromatography is an example of :

(1)

Thin layer chromatography

(2)

Column chromatography

(3)

Adsorption chromatography

(4)

Partition chromatography

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Answer: D

What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ? CH 4 (g) + 4Cl 2 (g) → CCl 4 (l) + 4HCl(g)

(1)

+ 4 to + 4

(2)

0 to + 4

(3)

− 4 to + 4

(4)

0 to − 4

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Answer: C

Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :

(1)

Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(2)

Cross Aldol condensation

(3)

Aldol condensation

(4)

Cannizzaro’s reaction

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Answer: B

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in 175 71 Lu , respectively, are :

(1)

71, 71 and 104

(2)

175, 104 and 71

(3)

71, 104 and 71

(4)

104, 71 and 71

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Answer: C

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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2020 Question Paper, Code HAKAN-F4. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.