Official NTA NEET-UG 2021 question paper, set GAJAHA-M1. 200 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R 1 and R 2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ( σ 1 / σ 2 ) is :
1 2 R R
2 1 R R
1 2 R R
2 2 1 2 R R
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d 2 , then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
Mg 2
Mg
3 Mg 2
2 Mg
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
4 × 10 − 20 N
8 π× 10 − 20 N
4 π× 10 − 20 N
8 × 10 − 20 N
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move ?
towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.
towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
a large aperture provides a better resolution.
all of the above.
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
0.52 cm
0.026 cm
0.26 cm
0.052 cm
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
0.9 MeV
9.4 MeV
804 MeV
216 MeV
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S n be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n − 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio n n 1 S S + is :
2n 1 2n −
2n 1 2n 1 − +
2n 1 2n 1 + −
2n 2n 1 −
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 .
60 8
30 8
45 8
90 8
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is :
0.0628 s
6.28 s
14 s
0.628 s
A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
25
15
50
30
Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I and Column - II with appropriate relations. Column - I Column - II (A) Drift Velocity (P) 2 m ne ρ (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ne v d (C) Relaxation Period (R) eE m τ (D) Current Density (S) E J (1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P) (3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q) (4)
-(R),
-(Q),
-(S),
-(P)
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
current in n-type = current in p-type.
current in p-type > current in n-type.
current in n-type > current in p-type.
No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type.
A radioactive nucleus A Z X undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence A Z 1 Z 3 Z 2 Z X B C D − − − → → → , where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are :
α , β − , β +
α , β + , β −
β + , α , β −
β − , α , β +
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 m/s 2 )
10.2 kW
8.1 kW
12.3 kW
7.0 kW
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 10 − 3 watt will be : (h = 6.6 × 10 − 34 Js)
10 18
10 17
10 16
10 15
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x -direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ?
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ + + j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ − + − − j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ + − − j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ − + − + j k, j k
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω . What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series ?
0.25 Ω
0.5 Ω
1 Ω
4 Ω
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
60 cm
21.6 cm
64 cm
62 cm
Polar molecules are the molecules :
having zero dipole moment.
acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.
having a permanent electric dipole moment.
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ‘ E → ’ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is : ( ε 0 = permittivity of free space)
2 0 1 ε E 2
ε 0 EAd
2 0 1 ε E Ad 2
2 0 E Ad ε
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :
3C
2C
C/2
3C/2
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V. (1) (A) and (B) both are correct. (2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect. (3) (A) is correct and
is incorrect.
is incorrect but
is correct.
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively :
S 3gS 4 2 ,
3gS S 4 2 ,
3gS S 2 2 ,
S 3gS 4 2 ,
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E G has the dimensions of :
[ M 2 ] [ L − 1 ] [ T 0 ]
[ M ] [ L − 1 ] [ T − 1 ]
[ M ] [ L 0 ] [ T 0 ]
[ M 2 ] [ L − 2 ] [ T − 1 ]
Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices. Column - I Column - II (A) Root mean square (P) 2 1 nm 3 v speed of gas molecules (B) Pressure exerted (Q) 3 RT M by ideal gas (C) Average kinetic energy (R) 5 RT 2 of a molecule (D) Total internal energy (S) B 3 k T 2 of 1 mole of a diatomic gas (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (4)
- (R),
- (Q),
- (P),
- (S)
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is :
n
2n
3n
4n
A cup of coffee cools from 90 8 C to 80 8 C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20 8 C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80 8 C to 60 8 C at a room temperature same at 20 8 C is :
13 t 10
13 t 5
10 t 13
5 t 13
A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V 0 sin ω t The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by :
I d = V 0 ω Ccos ω t
= ω ω 0 d V I cos t C
= ω ω 0 d V I sin t C
I d = V 0 ω Csin ω t
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be :
1/2
1 2 2
2 3
2 3 2
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
Ω 4 2
5 2 Ω
4 Ω
5 Ω
A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by :
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘ λ ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λ d , then :
2 d 2m hc λ= λ
2 d 2mc h λ = λ
2 d 2mc h λ= λ
2 d 2h mc λ= λ
The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v . The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
v
2 v
3 v
4 v
If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
[ F ] [ A ] [ T ]
[ F ] [ A ] [ T 2 ]
[ F ] [ A ] [ T − 1 ]
[ F ] [ A − 1 ] [ T ] Section - B (Physics)
Two conducting circular loops of radii R 1 and R 2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R 1 >> R 2 , the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to :
1 2 R R
2 1 R R
2 1 2 R R
2 2 1 R R
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of :
20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
Three resistors having resistances r 1 , r 2 and r 3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio 3 1 i i of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :
1 2 3 r r r +
2 2 3 r r r +
1 1 2 r r r +
2 1 3 r r r +
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y ?
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μ F capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s 2 . At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s ? (Take g = 10 m/s 2 )
20 m/s, 5 m/s 2
20 m/s, 0
20 2 m/s, 0
20 2 m/s, 10 m/s 2
A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kV e (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (V e = escape velocity) The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is :
2 k R 1 k −
2 k R 1 k +
2 R k 1 k +
2 2 Rk 1 k −
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ‘ θ ’ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ , is then given by :
1 2 2 1 2 gT cos R − θ= π
1 2 2 1 2 R cos gT − π θ=
1 2 2 1 2 R sin gT − π θ=
1 2 2 1 2 2gT sin R − θ= π
In the product ( ) F q B v → → → = × ( ) 0 q B B B v i j k → ∧ ∧ ∧ = × + + For q = 1 and 2 4 6 v i j k ∧ ∧ ∧ → = + + and F 4 20 12 i j k → ∧ ∧ ∧ = − + What will be the complete expression for B → ?
8 8 6 i j k ∧ ∧ ∧ − − −
6 6 8 i j k ∧ ∧ ∧ − − −
8 8 6 i j k ∧ ∧ ∧ + −
6 6 8 i j k ∧ ∧ ∧ + −
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s 2 ) nearly :
0 kg m/s
2 kg m/s
1 kg m/s
4 kg m/s
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of, (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. (ii) a square of side ‘a’. The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are :
3 Ia 2 and 3 Ia 2
3 Ia 2 and Ia 2
3 Ia 2 and 4 Ia 2
4 Ia 2 and 3 Ia 2
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
660 V
1320 V
1520 V
1980 V
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s 2 )
1 kg 2
1 kg 3
1 kg 6
1 kg 12
From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc corresponding to a 90 8 sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR 2 ’. Then the value of ‘K’ is :
3 4
7 8
1 4
1 8
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
0.2 A
0.4 A
2 A
4 A Section - A (Chemistry)
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
120 8
180 8
60 8
0 8
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
The major product of the following chemical reaction is :
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3.0 × 10 8 ms − 1 ]
219.3 m
219.2 m
2192 m
21.92 cm
The incorrect statement among the following is :
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
8, 4
6, 12
2, 1
12, 6
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
2KClO 3 → ∆ 2KCl + 3O 2
Cr 2 O 3 + 2Al → ∆ Al 2 O 3 + 2Cr
Fe + 2HCl → FeCl 2 + H 2 ↑
2Pb(NO 3 ) 2 → 2PbO + 4NO 2 + O 2 ↑
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true .
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ? Acetone 2 5 2 (i) C H MgBr dry Ether (ii) H O H , , → + Product
2-methyl propan-2-ol
pentan-2-ol
pentan-3-ol
2-methyl butan-2-ol
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true .
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between C P and C V for one mole of ideal gas ?
C P + C V = R
C P − C V = R
C P = RC V
C V = RC P
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) PCl 5 | (i) Square pyramidal |
| (b) SF 6 | (ii) Trigonal planar |
| (c) BrF 5 | (iii) Octahedral |
| (d) BF 3 | (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal |
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) in 250 ml of water (P 1 ), 10 g of urea (CH 4 N 2 O) in 250 ml of water (P 2 ) and 10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of water (P 3 ). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
P 2 > P 1 > P 3
P 1 > P 2 > P 3
P 2 > P 3 > P 1
P 3 > P 1 > P 2
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature ?
Electrolysis
Chromatography
Distillation
Zone refining
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles ?
Beta ( β − )
Alpha ( α )
Gamma ( γ )
Neutron (n)
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
7
5
2
3
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on ?
Saytzeff’s Rule
Hund’s Rule
Hofmann Rule
Huckel’s Rule
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
upto 1200 K
upto 2200 K
upto 1900 K
upto 5000 K
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH 3 COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm 2 mol − 1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH 3 COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.
201.28 S cm 2 mol − 1
390.71 S cm 2 mol − 1
698.28 S cm 2 mol − 1
540.48 S cm 2 mol − 1
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms
Unidentate ligand
Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
Chain and dimer, respectively
Linear in both
Dimer and Linear, respectively
Chain in both
The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is :
The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is :
NaCl solution
Glucose solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation ?
Teflon
Nylon-66
Novolac
Dacron
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
Vitamin B 12
Vitamin B 6
Vitamin B 1
Vitamin B 2
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond is :
CH 3 − F < CH 3 − Cl < CH 3 − Br < CH 3 − I
CH 3 − F > CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
CH 3 − F < CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − F > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
CH
CH 2
CH 3
CH 4
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
Calcium chloride
Strontium chloride
Magnesium chloride
Beryllium chloride
BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
sp 3 and 4
sp 3 and 6
sp 2 and 6
sp 2 and 8
The pK b of dimethylamine and pK a of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :
8.50
5.50
7.75
6.25
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
13 M1
For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is − 4.2 kJ mol − 1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol − 1 . The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
The compound which shows metamerism is :
C 5 H 12
C 3 H 8 O
C 3 H 6 O
C 4 H 10 O
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
belonging to same group
diagonal relationship
lanthanoid contraction
having similar chemical properties Section - B (Chemistry)
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 − | (i) 5.92 BM |
| (b) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3 + | (ii) 0 BM |
| (c) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4 − | (iii) 4.90 BM |
| (d) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2 + | (iv) 1.73 BM |
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is :
H 2 O
CH 3 CH 2 OH
HI
CuCN/KCN
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair ?
O 2 − , F −
Na + , Mg 2 +
Mn 2 + , Fe 3 +
Fe 2 + , Mn 2 +
The slope of Arrhenius Plot 1 ln k v/s T of first order reaction is − 5 × 10 3 K. The value of E a of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer. [Given R = 8.314 JK − 1 mol − 1 ]
41.5 kJ mol − 1
83.0 kJ mol − 1
166 kJ mol − 1
− 83 kJ mol − 1
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
∆ U = 0, ∆ S total = 0
∆ U ≠ 0, ∆ S total ≠ 0
∆ U = 0, ∆ S total ≠ 0
∆ U ≠ 0, ∆ S total = 0
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it ?
HF < HCl : Increasing acidic < HBr < HI strength
H 2 O < H 2 S : Increasing pK a < H 2 Se < H 2 Te values
NH 3 < PH 3 : Increasing < AsH 3 < SbH 3 acidic character
CO 2 < SiO 2 : Increasing < SnO 2 < PbO 2 oxidizing power
The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reaction is :
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45 8 C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is : [At 45 8 C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
160 mm of Hg
168 mm of Hg
336 mm of Hg
350 mm of Hg
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm 2 mol − 1 . What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option. 2 1 H 2 1 CH COO 3 350 S cm mol 50 S cm mol Λ Λ − − + − = =
75 × 10 − 4 mol L − 1
50 × 10 − 4 mol L − 1
75 × 10 − 5 mol L − 1
50 × 10 − 5 mol L − 1
CH 3 CH 2 COO − Na + NaOH, ? Heat → + CH 3 CH 3 + Na 2 CO 3 . Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
B 2 H 6
Red Phosphorus
CaO
DIBAL-H
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) | (i) Hell-Volhard- Zelinsky reaction |
| (b) | (ii) Gattermann-Koch reaction |
| (c) R − CH 2 − OH | (iii) Haloform + R'COOH reaction 2 4 Conc H SO . → |
| (d) 2 2 2 | (iv) Esterification |
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is :
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature ?
POCl 3
CH 2 O
SbCl 5
NO 2
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → | (i) Acid rain 2SO 3 (g) |
| (b) HOCl(g) h → ν | (ii) Smog OH C l + i i |
| (c) CaCO 3 + H 2 SO 4 → | (iii) Ozone CaSO 4 + H 2 O + CO 2 depletion |
| (d) NO 2 (g) h → ν | (iv) Tropospheric NO(g) + O(g) pollution |
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O 2 and 2 g H 2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0 8 C is : [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol − 1 K − 1 , T = 273 K]
518
602
25.18
26.02 Section - A (Biology : Botany)
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
Carica papaya
Chara
Marchantia polymorpha
Cycas circinalis
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
8-nucleate and 7-celled
7-nucleate and 8-celled
7-nucleate and 7-celled
8-nucleate and 8-celled
Gemmae are present in :
Mosses
Pteridophytes
Some Gymnosperms
Some Liverworts
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
Metacentric
Telocentric
Sub-metacentric
Acrocentric
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?
Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
The first stable product of CO 2 fixation in sorghum is :
Pyruvic acid
Oxaloacetic acid
Succinic acid
Phosphoglyceric acid
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
Natural selection
Genetic recombination
Mutation
Genetic drift
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
Amensalism can be represented as :
Species A ( − ) ; Species B (0)
Species A ( + ) ; Species B ( + )
Species A ( − ) ; Species B ( − )
Species A ( + ) ; Species B (0)
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
Climax
Climax community
Standing state
Standing crop
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
Ectocarpus
Gracilaria
Volvox
Ulothrix
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival ?
Resource partitioning
Competitive release
Mutualism
Predation
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
Homosorus
Heterosorus
Homosporous
Heterosporous
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
Shoot apex
Stem
Axillary bud
Leaf
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called :
Elasticity
Flexibility
Plasticity
Maturity
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cristae | (i) Primary constriction in chromosome |
| (b) Thylakoids | (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus |
| (c) Centromere | (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria |
| (d) Cisternae | (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids List - I List - II |
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cohesion | (i) More attraction in liquid phase |
| (b) Adhesion | (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules |
| (c) Surface tension | (iii) Water loss in liquid phase |
| (d) Guttation | (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces List - I List - II |
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
Yellow bands
Bright orange bands
Dark red bands
Bright blue bands
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
Xenogamy
Geitonogamy
Chasmogamy
Cleistogamy
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
Green algae
Brown algae
Red algae
Blue-green algae
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
In the equation GPP − R = NPP R represents :
Radiant energy
Retardation factor
Environment factor
Respiration losses
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
China rose
Citrus
Pea
China rose and citrus
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
Biopiracy
Gene therapy
Molecular diagnosis
Safety testing
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Lenticels | (i) Phellogen |
| (b) Cork cambium | (ii) Suberin deposition |
| (c) Secondary cortex | (iii) Exchange of gases |
| (d) Cork | (iv) Phelloderm List - I List - II |
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F 1 and F 2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
Bullet square
Punch square
Punnett square
Net square
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
Kinetin
Infrared rays
Gamma rays
Zeatin
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Protoplast fusion | (i) Totipotency |
| (b) Plant tissue culture | (ii) Pomato |
| (c) Meristem culture | (iii) Somaclones |
| (d) Micropropagation | (iv) Virus free plants List - II List - I |
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
RNA
DNA
Histones
Polysaccharides
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
Molecular diagnosis
Gene amplification
Purification of isolated protein
Detection of gene mutation
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :
IAA
NAA
2, 4-D
IBA
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cells with active cell division capacity | (i) Vascular tissues |
| (b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function | (ii) Meristematic tissue |
| (c) Tissue having different types of cells | (iii) Sclereids |
| (d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen | (iv) Simple tissue List - I List - II |
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?
Morphine, codeine
Amino acids, glucose
Vinblastin, curcumin
Rubber, gums Section - B (Biology : Botany)
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H + gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH 2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
ATP is synthesized through complex V.
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
Match Column - I with Column - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Nitrococcus | (i) Denitrification |
| (b) Rhizobium | (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite |
| (c) Thiobacillus | (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate |
| (d) Nitrobacter | (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia Column - I Column - II |
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Match Column - I with Column - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) | (i) Brassicaceae |
| (b) | (ii) Liliaceae |
| (c) | (iii) Fabaceae |
| (d) | (iv) Solanaceae |
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Identify the correct statement.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3 9 end of hnRNA.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
Select the correct pair.
Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells cells in the epidermis of grass leaves
In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive bundles are surrounded tissue by large thick-walled cells
Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular that form part of cambium cambial ring
Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy rupturing the epidermis parenchyma and forming a lens- shaped opening in bark
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
Satellite DNA
Repetitive DNA
Single nucleotides
Polymorphic DNA
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Both ATP and NADPH + H + are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
Transcribes only snRNAs
In the exponential growth equation N t = N o e rt , e represents :
The base of number logarithms
The base of exponential logarithms
The base of natural logarithms
The base of geometric logarithms
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Protein | (i) C = C double bonds |
| (b) Unsaturated fatty acid | (ii) Phosphodiester bonds |
| (c) Nucleic acid | (iii) Glycosidic bonds |
| (d) Polysaccharide | (iv) Peptide bonds List - I List - II |
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) S phase | (i) Proteins are synthesized |
| (b) G 2 phase | (ii) Inactive phase |
| (c) Quiescent stage | (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication |
| (d) G 1 phase | (iv) DNA replication List - I List - II |
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene amp R that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β -galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β -galactoside.
it will lead to lysis of host cell.
it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability. Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
Identify the incorrect pair.
Alkaloids - Codeine
Toxin - Abrin
Lectins - Concanavalin A
Drugs - Ricin
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G 1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
8
16
4
32
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Metamerism | (i) Coelenterata |
| (b) Canal system | (ii) Ctenophora |
| (c) Comb plates | (iii) Annelida |
| (d) Cnidoblasts | (iv) Porifera List - I List - II |
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Vaults | (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked |
| (b) IUDs | (ii) Removal of Vas deferens |
| (c) Vasectomy | (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus |
| (d) Tubectomy | (iv) Removal of fallopian tube List - II List - I |
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
siRNA
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?
CuT
LNG 20
Cu 7
Multiload 375
Succus entericus is referred to as :
Pancreatic juice
Intestinal juice
Gastric juice
Chyme
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
Arthritis
Muscular dystrophy
Myasthenia gravis
Gout
With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(b) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
(a), (c) and (d) only
(a) and (d) only
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
Fire fly
Grasshopper
Cockroach
House fly
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
DNA Ligase
DNase
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
Corona radiata
Vitelline membrane
Perivitelline space
Zona pellucida
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
S-phase
Prophase
Metaphase
G 2 phase
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
Neophron
Hemidactylus
Macropus
Ornithorhynchus
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :
Alpha cells of pancreas
The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
The cells of bone marrow
Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Match the following :
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Physalia | (i) Pearl oyster |
| (b) Limulus | (ii) Portuguese Man of War |
| (c) Ancylostoma | (iii) Living fossil |
| (d) Pinctada | (iv) Hookworm List - I List - II |
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
Annealing
Extension
Denaturation
Ligation
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
These muscle have no striations
They are involuntary muscles
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Aspergillus niger | (i) Acetic Acid |
| (b) Acetobacter aceti | (ii) Lactic Acid |
| (c) Clostridium butylicum | (iii) Citric Acid |
| (d) Lactobacillus | (iv) Butyric Acid List - I List - II |
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection ?
Western Blotting Technique
Southern Blotting Technique
ELISA Technique
Hybridization Technique
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
In females, 7 th -9 th sterna together form a genital pouch.
10 th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
CFCs
Stratosphere
Ozone
Troposphere
Read the following statements. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a), (d) and (e) are correct
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
50%
75%
25%
100%
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
Thrombin
Renin
Epinephrine
Thrombokinase
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H + , lower temperature
Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher temperature
High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher temperature
Low pO 2 , low pCO 2 , more H + , higher temperature
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
Ileo-caecal junction
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
Gastro-oesophageal junction
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?
Leptotene
Zygotene
Diakinesis
Pachytene
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
Improve protein content
Improve resistance to diseases
Improve vitamin content
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O 2 ) and carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
pO 2 = 104 and pCO 2 = 40
pO 2 = 40 and pCO 2 = 45
pO 2 = 95 and pCO 2 = 40
pO 2 = 159 and pCO 2 = 0.3
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a), (b) and (c) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is : (1) Degenerate primer sequence
Okazaki sequences
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
Poly
tail sequences 24 M1 Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong ?
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur ? (a) ‘H’ zone disappears (b) ‘A’ band widens (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
(b), (c), (d), (e) only
(b), (d), (e), (a) only
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Scapula | (i) Cartilaginous joints |
| (b) Cranium | (ii) Flat bone |
| (c) Sternum | (iii) Fibrous joints |
| (d) Vertebral column | (iv) Triangular flat bone List - II List - I |
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Synthesis of prostaglandins
Release of Oxytocin
Release of Prolactin
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
is true but (R) is false
is false but (R) is true
Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’. (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids. (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) and (b) only
(c) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
(b) and (e) only
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :
Dysfunction of Immune system
Parkinson’s disease
Digestive disorder
Addison’s disease
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?
Graafian follicle
Corpus luteum
Foetus
Uterus
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?
Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation
Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Filariasis | (i) Haemophilus influenzae |
| (b) Amoebiasis | (ii) Trichophyton |
| (c) Pneumonia | (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti |
| (d) Ringworm | (iv) Entamoeba histolytica List - I List - II |
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Allen's Rule | (i) Kangaroo rat |
| (b) Physiological adaptation | (ii) Desert lizard |
| (c) Behavioural adaptation | (iii) Marine fish at depth |
| (d) Biochemical adaptation | (iv) Polar seal List - I List - II |
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Adaptive radiation | (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides |
| (b) Convergent evolution | (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale |
| (c) Divergent evolution | (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird |
| (d) Evolution by anthropo- genic action | (iv) Darwin Finches List - I List - II |
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Statement I : The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II : ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
(a), (b) and (d) are correct
(a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(b) and (c) are correct - o 0 o -
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2021 Question Paper, Code GAJAHA-M1. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.