Official NTA NEET-UG 2021 question paper, set HAGAJA-O3. 178 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
Polar molecules are the molecules :
acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.
having a permanent electric dipole moment.
having zero dipole moment.
acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively :
3gS S 2 2 ,
S 3gS 4 2 ,
S 3gS 4 2 ,
3gS S 4 2 ,
Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I and Column - II with appropriate relations. Column - I Column - II (A) Drift Velocity (P) 2 m ne ρ (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ne v d (C) Relaxation Period (R) eE m τ (D) Current Density (S) E J (1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P) (3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q) (4)
-(R),
-(Q),
-(S),
-(P)
If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
[ F ] [ A ] [ T − 1 ]
[ F ] [ A − 1 ] [ T ] Section - B (Physics)
[ F ] [ A ] [ T ]
[ F ] [ A ] [ T 2 ]
The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v . The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
3 v
4 v
v
2 v
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S n be the distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n − 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio n n 1 S S + is :
2n 1 2n 1 − +
2n 2n 1 −
2n 1 2n −
2n 1 2n 1 + −
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d 2 , then the viscous force acting on the ball will be :
3 Mg 2
2 Mg
Mg 2
Mg
A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by :
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3 .
45 8
90 8
60 8
30 8
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
0.26 cm
0.052 cm
0.52 cm
0.026 cm
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
804 MeV
216 MeV
0.9 MeV
9.4 MeV
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? (g = 10 m/s 2 )
12.3 kW
7.0 kW
10.2 kW
8.1 kW
A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be :
50
30
25
15
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
a large aperture provides a better resolution.
all of the above.
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
current in n-type = current in p-type.
No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type.
current in n-type > current in p-type.
current in p-type > current in n-type.
A cup of coffee cools from 90 8 C to 80 8 C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20 8 C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80 8 C to 60 8 C at a room temperature same at 20 8 C is :
10 t 13
5 t 13
13 t 10
13 t 5
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
64 cm
62 cm
60 cm
21.6 cm
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω . What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series ?
1 Ω
4 Ω
0.25 Ω
0.5 Ω
A radioactive nucleus \( _{Z}^{A}X \) undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence \( _{Z}^{A}X \rightarrow _{Z_1}^{A_1}B \rightarrow _{Z_2}^{A_2}C \rightarrow _{Z_3}^{A_3}D \), where \( Z \) is the atomic number of element \( X \). The possible decay particles in the sequence are:
α , β − , β +
α , β + , β −
β + , α , β −
β − , α , β +
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move ?
towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
4 Ω
5 Ω
Ω 4 2
5 2 Ω
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :
C/2
3C/2
3C
2C
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V. (1) (A) and (B) both are correct. (2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect. (3) (A) is correct and
is incorrect.
is incorrect but
is correct.
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x -direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ?
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ + + j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ − + − − j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ + − − j k, j k
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ − + − + j k, j k
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 × 10 − 3 watt will be : (h = 6.6 × 10 − 34 Js)
10 16
10 15
10 18
10 17
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ‘ E → ’ in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor is : ( ε 0 = permittivity of free space)
2 0 1 ε E Ad 2
2 0 E Ad ε
2 0 1 ε E 2
ε 0 EAd
A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V 0 sin ω t The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by :
= ω ω 0 d V I sin t C
I d = V 0 ω Csin ω t
I d = V 0 ω Ccos ω t
= ω ω 0 d V I cos t C
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R 1 and R 2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres ( σ 1 / σ 2 ) is :
1 2 R R
2 2 1 2 R R
1 2 R R
2 1 R R
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘ λ ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength λ d , then :
2 d 2mc h λ = λ
2 d 2h mc λ= λ
2 d 2m hc λ= λ
2 d 2mc h λ= λ
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is :
14 s
0.628 s
0.0628 s
6.28 s
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
4 × 10 − 20 N
8 π× 10 − 20 N
4 π× 10 − 20 N
8 × 10 − 20 N
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be :
2 3
2 3 2
1/2
1 2 2
Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices. Column - I Column - II (A) Root mean square (P) 2 1 nm 3 v speed of gas molecules (B) Pressure exerted (Q) 3 RT M by ideal gas (C) Average kinetic energy (R) 5 RT 2 of a molecule (D) Total internal energy (S) B 3 k T 2 of 1 mole of a diatomic gas (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (4)
- (R),
- (Q),
- (P),
- (S)
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E G has the dimensions of :
[ M ] [ L 0 ] [ T 0 ]
[ M 2 ] [ L − 2 ] [ T − 1 ]
[ M 2 ] [ L − 1 ] [ T 0 ]
[ M ] [ L − 1 ] [ T − 1 ]
From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc corresponding to a 90 8 sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR 2 ’. Then the value of ‘K’ is :
1 4
1 8
3 4
7 8
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of, (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. (ii) a square of side ‘a’. The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are :
3 Ia 2 and 4 Ia 2
4 Ia 2 and 3 Ia 2
3 Ia 2 and 3 Ia 2
3 Ia 2 and Ia 2
Two conducting circular loops of radii R 1 and R 2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R 1 >> R 2 , the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to :
2 1 2 R R
2 2 1 R R
1 2 R R
2 1 R R
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s 2 ) nearly :
1 kg m/s
4 kg m/s
0 kg m/s
2 kg m/s
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
2 A
4 A Section - A (Chemistry)
0.2 A
0.4 A
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
1520 V
1980 V
660 V
1320 V
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y ?
A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity v = kV e (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (V e = escape velocity) The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is :
2 R k 1 k +
2 2 Rk 1 k −
2 k R 1 k +
2 k R 1 k −
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s 2 . At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s ? (Take g = 10 m/s 2 )
20 2 m/s, 0
20 2 m/s, 10 m/s 2
20 m/s, 5 m/s 2
20 m/s, 0
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μ F capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ‘ θ ’ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ , is then given by :
1 2 2 1 2 R sin gT − π θ=
1 2 2 1 2 2gT sin R − θ= π
1 2 2 1 2 gT cos R − θ= π
1 2 2 1 2 R cos gT − π θ=
Three resistors having resistances r 1 , r 2 and r 3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio 3 1 i i of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :
1 1 2 r r r +
2 1 3 r r r +
1 2 3 r r r +
2 2 3 r r r +
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of :
30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s 2 )
1 kg 6
1 kg 12
1 kg 2
1 kg 3
The compound which shows metamerism is :
C 3 H 6 O
C 4 H 10 O
C 5 H 12
C 3 H 8 O
The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is :
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond is :
CH 3 − F < CH 3 − Cl < CH 3 − Br < CH 3 − I
CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − F > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
CH 3 − F > CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
CH 3 − F < CH 3 − Cl > CH 3 − Br > CH 3 − I
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
lanthanoid contraction
having similar chemical properties Section - B (Chemistry)
belonging to same group
diagonal relationship
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
2, 1
12, 6
8, 4
6, 12
BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are :
sp 2 and 6
sp 2 and 8
sp 3 and 4
sp 3 and 6
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) in 250 ml of water (P 1 ), 10 g of urea (CH 4 N 2 O) in 250 ml of water (P 2 ) and 10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of water (P 3 ). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
P 2 > P 3 > P 1
P 3 > P 1 > P 2
P 2 > P 1 > P 3
P 1 > P 2 > P 3
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles ?
Gamma ( γ )
Neutron (n)
Beta ( β − )
Alpha ( α )
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms
Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms
Unidentate ligand
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ? Acetone 2 5 2 (i) C H MgBr dry Ether (ii) H O H , , → + Product
pentan-3-ol
2-methyl butan-2-ol
2-methyl propan-2-ol
pentan-2-ol
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on ?
Hofmann Rule
Huckel’s Rule
Saytzeff’s Rule
Hund’s Rule
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.
Fe + 2HCl → FeCl 2 + H 2 ↑
2Pb(NO 3 ) 2 → 2PbO + 4NO 2 + O 2 ↑
2KClO 3 → ∆ 2KCl + 3O 2
Cr 2 O 3 + 2Al → ∆ Al 2 O 3 + 2Cr
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between C P and C V for one mole of ideal gas ?
C P = RC V
C V = RC P
C P + C V = R
C P − C V = R
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
Vitamin B 1
Vitamin B 2
Vitamin B 12
Vitamin B 6
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation ?
Novolac
Dacron
Teflon
Nylon-66
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
CH 3
CH 4
CH
CH 2
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
60 8
0 8
120 8
180 8
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) PCl 5 | (i) Square pyramidal |
| (b) SF 6 | (ii) Trigonal planar |
| (c) BrF 5 | (iii) Octahedral |
| (d) BF 3 | (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal |
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
The major product of the following chemical reaction is :
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature ?
Distillation
Zone refining
Electrolysis
Chromatography
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true .
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
The pK b of dimethylamine and pK a of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is :
7.75
6.25
8.50
5.50
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH 3 COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm 2 mol − 1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH 3 COOH at infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your answer.
698.28 S cm 2 mol − 1
540.48 S cm 2 mol − 1
201.28 S cm 2 mol − 1
390.71 S cm 2 mol − 1
The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is :
Starch solution
Urea solution
NaCl solution
Glucose solution
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
2
3
7
5
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
13 M1
The incorrect statement among the following is :
Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.
For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is − 4.2 kJ mol − 1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol − 1 . The correct potential energy profile for the reaction is shown in option.
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
Magnesium chloride
Beryllium chloride
Calcium chloride
Strontium chloride
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
upto 1900 K
upto 5000 K
upto 1200 K
upto 2200 K
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true .
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
Dimer and Linear, respectively
Chain in both
Chain and dimer, respectively
Linear in both
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3.0 × 10 8 ms − 1 ]
2192 m
21.92 cm
219.3 m
219.2 m
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it ?
NH 3 < PH 3 : Increasing < AsH 3 < SbH 3 acidic character
CO 2 < SiO 2 : Increasing < SnO 2 < PbO 2 oxidizing power
HF < HCl : Increasing acidic < HBr < HI strength
H 2 O < H 2 S : Increasing pK a < H 2 Se < H 2 Te values
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
∆ U = 0, ∆ S total = 0
∆ U ≠ 0, ∆ S total ≠ 0
∆ U = 0, ∆ S total ≠ 0
∆ U ≠ 0, ∆ S total = 0
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair ?
Mn 2 + , Fe 3 +
Fe 2 + , Mn 2 +
O 2 − , F −
Na + , Mg 2 +
CH 3 CH 2 COO − Na + NaOH, ? Heat → + CH 3 CH 3 + Na 2 CO 3 . Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
CaO
DIBAL-H
B 2 H 6
Red Phosphorus
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature ?
SbCl 5
NO 2
POCl 3
CH 2 O
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 − | (i) 5.92 BM |
| (b) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3 + | (ii) 0 BM |
| (c) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 4 − | (iii) 4.90 BM |
| (d) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2 + | (iv) 1.73 BM |
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45 8 C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is : [At 45 8 C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
336 mm of Hg
350 mm of Hg
160 mm of Hg
168 mm of Hg
The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is :
HI
CuCN/KCN
H 2 O
CH 3 CH 2 OH
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) | (i) Hell-Volhard- Zelinsky reaction |
| (b) | (ii) Gattermann-Koch reaction |
| (c) R − CH 2 − OH | (iii) Haloform + R'COOH reaction 2 4 Conc H SO . → |
| (d) 2 2 2 | (iv) Esterification |
(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm 2 mol − 1 . What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option. 2 1 H 2 1 CH COO 3 350 S cm mol 50 S cm mol Λ Λ − − + − = =
75 × 10 − 5 mol L − 1
50 × 10 − 5 mol L − 1
75 × 10 − 4 mol L − 1
50 × 10 − 4 mol L − 1
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O 2 and 2 g H 2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0 8 C is : [Given R = 0.082 L atm mol − 1 K − 1 , T = 273 K]
25.18
26.02 Section - A (Biology : Botany)
518
602
The slope of Arrhenius Plot 1 ln k v/s T of first order reaction is − 5 × 10 3 K. The value of E a of the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer. [Given R = 8.314 JK − 1 mol − 1 ]
166 kJ mol − 1
− 83 kJ mol − 1
41.5 kJ mol − 1
83.0 kJ mol − 1
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is :
Match List - I with List - II . List - I List - II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → | (i) Acid rain 2SO 3 (g) |
| (b) HOCl(g) h → ν | (ii) Smog OH C l + i i |
| (c) CaCO 3 + H 2 SO 4 → | (iii) Ozone CaSO 4 + H 2 O + CO 2 depletion |
| (d) NO 2 (g) h → ν | (iv) Tropospheric NO(g) + O(g) pollution |
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reaction is :
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
Sub-metacentric
Acrocentric
Metacentric
Telocentric
In the equation GPP − R = NPP R represents :
Environment factor
Respiration losses
Radiant energy
Retardation factor
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cells with active cell division capacity | (i) Vascular tissues |
| (b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function | (ii) Meristematic tissue |
| (c) Tissue having different types of cells | (iii) Sclereids |
| (d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen | (iv) Simple tissue List - I List - II |
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cristae | (i) Primary constriction in chromosome |
| (b) Thylakoids | (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus |
| (c) Centromere | (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria |
| (d) Cisternae | (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids List - I List - II |
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Diadelphous stamens are found in :
Pea
China rose and citrus
China rose
Citrus
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
Chasmogamy
Cleistogamy
Xenogamy
Geitonogamy
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :
2, 4-D
IBA
IAA
NAA
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?
Volvox
Ulothrix
Ectocarpus
Gracilaria
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
Dark red bands
Bright blue bands
Yellow bands
Bright orange bands
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?
Vinblastin, curcumin
Rubber, gums Section - B (Biology : Botany)
Morphine, codeine
Amino acids, glucose
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival ?
Mutualism
Predation
Resource partitioning
Competitive release
Amensalism can be represented as :
Species A ( + ) ; Species B ( + )
Species A ( − ) ; Species B (0)
Species A ( + ) ; Species B (0)
Species A ( − ) ; Species B ( − )
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
7-nucleate and 7-celled
8-nucleate and 8-celled
8-nucleate and 7-celled
7-nucleate and 8-celled
The first stable product of CO 2 fixation in sorghum is :
Succinic acid
Phosphoglyceric acid
Pyruvic acid
Oxaloacetic acid
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called :
Plasticity
Maturity
Elasticity
Flexibility
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Protoplast fusion | (i) Totipotency |
| (b) Plant tissue culture | (ii) Pomato |
| (c) Meristem culture | (iii) Somaclones |
| (d) Micropropagation | (iv) Virus free plants List - II List - I |
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
Purification of isolated protein
Detection of gene mutation
Molecular diagnosis
Gene amplification
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?
Red algae
Blue-green algae
Green algae
Brown algae
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F 1 and F 2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
Punnett square
Net square
Bullet square
Punch square
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
Gemmae are present in :
Some Gymnosperms
Some Liverworts
Mosses
Pteridophytes
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
(a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
Histones
Polysaccharides
RNA
DNA
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
Gamma rays
Zeatin
Kinetin
Infrared rays
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Lenticels | (i) Phellogen |
| (b) Cork cambium | (ii) Suberin deposition |
| (c) Secondary cortex | (iii) Exchange of gases |
| (d) Cork | (iv) Phelloderm List - I List - II |
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :
Axillary bud
Leaf
Shoot apex
Stem
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
Mutation
Genetic drift
Natural selection
Genetic recombination
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
Standing state
Standing crop
Climax
Climax community
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cohesion | (i) More attraction in liquid phase |
| (b) Adhesion | (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules |
| (c) Surface tension | (iii) Water loss in liquid phase |
| (d) Guttation | (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces List - I List - II |
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
Molecular diagnosis
Safety testing
Biopiracy
Gene therapy
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
Homosporous
Heterosporous
Homosorus
Heterosorus
Which of the following plants is monoecious ?
Marchantia polymorpha
Cycas circinalis
Carica papaya
Chara
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?
Transcribes precursor of mRNA
Transcribes only snRNAs
Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
Which of the following statements is correct ?
Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
Match Column - I with Column - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Nitrococcus | (i) Denitrification |
| (b) Rhizobium | (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite |
| (c) Thiobacillus | (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate |
| (d) Nitrobacter | (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia Column - I Column - II |
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene amp R that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β -galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
it will lead to lysis of host cell.
it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability. Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce β -galactoside.
Match Column - I with Column - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) | (i) Brassicaceae |
| (b) | (ii) Liliaceae |
| (c) | (iii) Fabaceae |
| (d) | (iv) Solanaceae |
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
ATP is synthesized through complex V.
Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H + gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH 2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Protein | (i) C = C double bonds |
| (b) Unsaturated fatty acid | (ii) Phosphodiester bonds |
| (c) Nucleic acid | (iii) Glycosidic bonds |
| (d) Polysaccharide | (iv) Peptide bonds List - I List - II |
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :
Single nucleotides
Polymorphic DNA
Satellite DNA
Repetitive DNA
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) S phase | (i) Proteins are synthesized |
| (b) G 2 phase | (ii) Inactive phase |
| (c) Quiescent stage | (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication |
| (d) G 1 phase | (iv) DNA replication List - I List - II |
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Identify the correct statement.
The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.
Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3 9 end of hnRNA.
RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
Select the correct pair.
Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular that form part of cambium cambial ring
Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy rupturing the epidermis parenchyma and forming a lens- shaped opening in bark
Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells cells in the epidermis of grass leaves
In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive bundles are surrounded tissue by large thick-walled cells
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
Both ATP and NADPH + H + are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complimentarity with it.
mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complimentarity with it.
mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.
In the exponential growth equation N t = N o e rt , e represents :
The base of natural logarithms
The base of geometric logarithms
The base of number logarithms
The base of exponential logarithms
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?
Poaceae ; Solanaceae
Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
Poaceae ; Rosaceae
Poaceae ; Leguminosae
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Aspergillus niger | (i) Acetic Acid |
| (b) Acetobacter aceti | (ii) Lactic Acid |
| (c) Clostridium butylicum | (iii) Citric Acid |
| (d) Lactobacillus | (iv) Butyric Acid List - I List - II |
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?
Cu 7
Multiload 375
CuT
LNG 20
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
In females, 7 th -9 th sterna together form a genital pouch.
10 th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
Identify the incorrect pair.
Lectins - Concanavalin A
Drugs - Ricin
Alkaloids - Codeine
Toxin - Abrin
Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(b) and (c) only
(a) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
Myasthenia gravis
Gout
Arthritis
Muscular dystrophy
With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a), (c) and (d) only
(a) and (d) only
(b) and (d) only
(b) and (c) only
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
These muscle have no striations
They are involuntary muscles
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
Metaphase
G 2 phase
S-phase
Prophase
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
Ozone
Troposphere
CFCs
Stratosphere
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :
Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?
rRNA
siRNA
mRNA
tRNA
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Metamerism | (i) Coelenterata |
| (b) Canal system | (ii) Ctenophora |
| (c) Comb plates | (iii) Annelida |
| (d) Cnidoblasts | (iv) Porifera List - I List - II |
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?
Diakinesis
Pachytene
Leptotene
Zygotene
Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O 2 ) and carbon dioxide (CO 2 ) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
pO 2 = 95 and pCO 2 = 40
pO 2 = 159 and pCO 2 = 0.3
pO 2 = 104 and pCO 2 = 40
pO 2 = 40 and pCO 2 = 45
Succus entericus is referred to as :
Gastric juice
Chyme
Pancreatic juice
Intestinal juice
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
Perivitelline space
Zona pellucida
Corona radiata
Vitelline membrane
Match the following :
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Physalia | (i) Pearl oyster |
| (b) Limulus | (ii) Portuguese Man of War |
| (c) Ancylostoma | (iii) Living fossil |
| (d) Pinctada | (iv) Hookworm List - I List - II |
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?
25%
100%
50%
75%
Read the following statements. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a), (d) and (e) are correct
(b), (c) and (e) are correct
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
Gastro-oesophageal junction
Junction of jejunum and duodenum
Ileo-caecal junction
Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?
Epinephrine
Thrombokinase
Thrombin
Renin
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?
Cockroach
House fly
Fire fly
Grasshopper
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G 1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?
4
32
8
16
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?
Improve vitamin content
Improve micronutrient and mineral content
Improve protein content
Improve resistance to diseases
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is : (1) Degenerate primer sequence
Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
tail sequences 24 M1 Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
Poly
Okazaki sequences
Match List - I with List - II .
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Vaults | (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked |
| (b) IUDs | (ii) Removal of Vas deferens |
| (c) Vasectomy | (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus |
| (d) Tubectomy | (iv) Removal of fallopian tube List - II List - I |
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection ?
ELISA Technique
Hybridization Technique
Western Blotting Technique
Southern Blotting Technique
Note the chapters where you slipped up in this paper, then revise via NCERT-aligned notes, interactive widgets, and chapter-wise mock tests for all four subjects.
Physics
28 NEET chapters
Chemistry
28 NEET chapters
Botany
18 NEET chapters
Sign up free to take this paper as a 3h 20min timed mock with full question palette and live timer, get a chapter-wise score breakdown, and predict your NEET 2027 score from real PYQ accuracy.
Free 14-day trial · No credit card · Cancel anytime
Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2021 Question Paper, Code HAGAJA-O3. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.