Official NTA NEET-UG 2014 question paper, set P. 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are -
[FVT –1 ]
[FVT –2 ]
[FV –1 T –1 ]
[FV –1 T]
A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms –1 and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms –1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms –1 ) - (given g = 9.8 ms –2 )
5
5.9
16.3
110.8
A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0. (6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and (13m, 14m) at time t = 5s. Average velocity vector → av V from t = 0 to t = 5 s is -
5 1 ( j ˆ 14 i ˆ 13 + )
3 7 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )
2 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )
5 11 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )
A system consists of three masses m 1 , m 2 and m 3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m 1 hangs freely and m 2 and m 3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m 1 is – (Assume m 1 = m 2 = m 3 = m) P m 1 m 2 m 3
9 ) g 1 ( g μ −
3 g 2 μ
2 1 ( g μ −
2 1 ( g μ −
The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is - 6 3 0 –3 6 8 4 2 t(s) F(N)
24 Ns
20 Ns
12 Ns
6 Ns
A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’ ?
a g ma 2 +
a g ma 2 −
a g ma +
a g ma −
A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is -
mv 2
3/2 mv 2
2 mv 2
4 mv 2
The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represents by the equation X = A cos ( ω t) where X = displacement at time t ω = frequency of oscillation Which one of the following graph shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’ ?
a O T t
a O T t
a O T t
a O T t Here a = acceleration at time t T = time period
A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s –2 is -
25 N
50 N
78.5 N
157 N
The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘ θ ’ without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is -
5 : 7
2 : 3
2 : 5
7 : 5
A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 10 24 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ?
10 –9 m
10 –6 m
10 –2 m
100 m
Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by -
O E R r
O E R r
O E R r
O E R r
Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘ l ’. When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in the wire is ‘ ∆ l ’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line ?
∆ l versus 1/ l
∆ l versus l 2
∆ l versus 1/ l 2
∆ l versus l
A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then -
energy = 4VT − R 1 r 1 is released
energy = 3VT + R 1 r 1 is absorbed
energy = 3VT − R 1 r 1 is released
energy is neither released nor absorbed
Steam at 100ºC is passed into 20 g of water at 10ºC. When water acquires a temperature of 80ºC, the mass of water present will be - [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g –1 ºC –1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g –1 ]
24 g
31.5 g
42.5 g
22.5 g
Certain quantity of water cools from 70ºC to 60ºC in the first 5 minutes and 60ºC to 54ºC in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is -
45ºC
20ºC
42ºC
10ºC
A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is – (take γ = 5/3)
64 P
32 P
P/64
16 P
A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work done by the system in the cycle is -
P 0 V 0
2P 0 V 0
2 V P 0 0
Zero
The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius ‘r’) is inversely proportional to -
r 3
r 2
r
r
If n 1 , n 2 and n 3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by -
n 1 = 1 n 1 + 2 n 1 + 3 n 1
n 1 = 1 n 1 + 2 n 1 + 3 n 1
n = 1 n + 2 n + 3 n
n = n 1 + n 2 + n 3
The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are - (velocity of sound = 340 ms –1 )
4
5
7
6
A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be :-
1332 Hz
1372 Hz
1412 Hz
1464 Hz
Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K 1 and K 2 (K 1 < K 2 ) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field 'E' between the plates with distance 'd' as measured from plate P is correctly shown by : + + + + + + K 1 – – – – – – K 2 P Q
d → 0 ↑ E
d → 0 ↑ E
d → 0 ↑ E
d → 0 ↑ E
A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are :
Zero and 2 0 R 4 Q ∈ π
R 4 Q 0 ∈ π and Zero
R 4 Q 0 ∈ π and 2 0 R 4 Q ∈ π
Both are zero
In a region the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is
N 5 6
30N
24 N
N 35 4
Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω . The power loss in the wire is :
19.2 W
19.2 kW
19.2 J
12.2 kW
The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω , respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance points is at 1.6 l 1 . The resistance 'R', is : G 5 Ω R Ω A B l 1 100 – l 1
10 Ω
15 Ω
20 Ω
25 Ω
A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4m long. When the resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has values of. (i) infinity (ii) 9.5 Ω the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is
0.25 Ω
0.95 Ω
0.5 Ω
0.75 Ω
Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has a magnetic dipole moment \( m \). Which configuration has the highest net magnetic dipole moment? (a) N S S N (b) S N N S (c) S N N 30º (d) S N N 60º
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be :
499 1 G
500 499 G
500 1 G
499 500 G
Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that 'O' is their common point for the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents, respectively. Point 'P' is lying at distance 'd' from 'O' along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point 'P' will be :
π 2 1 0 I I d 2 μ
d 2 μ 0 π (I 1 + I 2 )
) I I ( d 2 μ 2 2 2 1 0 − π
2 / 1 2 2 2 1 0 ) I I ( d 2 μ + π
A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius 'r' is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:
Zero
Bv π r 2 /2 and P is at higher potential
π rBv and R is at higher potential
2rBv and R is at higher potential
A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :
300 V, 15 A
450 V, 15 A
450 V, 13.5 A
600 V, 15 A
Light with an energy flux of 25 × 10 4 Wm –2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm 2 , the average force exerted on the surface is
25 × 10 –6 N
50 × 10 –6 N
20 × 10 –6 N
0 × 10 –6 N
A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :
2 cm
2 mm
4 cm
4 mm
In the Young's double-silt experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, ( λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ /4, will be
K
K/4
K/2
Zero
If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of :
microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease
microscope and telescope both will increase
microscope and telescope both will decrease
microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase
The angle of a prism is 'A'. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incident 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is
2 sin A
2 cos A
2 1 cos A
tan A
When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
0.65 eV
0 eV
3 eV
5 eV
If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :
25
75
60
50
Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be
3
2
6
10
The Binding energy per nucleon of Li 7 3 and He 4 2 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear reaction Q He He H Li 4 2 4 2 1 1 7 3 + + → + , the value of energy Q released is
19.6 MeV
–2.4 MeV
8.4 MeV
17.3 MeV
A radio isotope 'X' with a half life 1.4 × 10^9 years decays to 'Y' which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is :
96 × 10 9 years
92 × 10 9 years
20 × 10 9 years
8.40 × 10 9 years
The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device. B V → A ↑ I Which of the following statement is correct?
It is V-I characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current
It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively
It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively
It is for a LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively
The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on : (a) type of semiconductor material (b) amount of doping (c) temperature Which one of the following is correct?
(a) and (b) only
(b) only
(b) and (c) only
(a), (b) and (c)
What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers n = 3, l = l, m l = 0
1
2
3
4
Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm: (Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10 34 Js, speed of light c = 3 × 10 8 ms –1 )
6.67 × 10 15
6.67 × 10 11
42 × 10 –15
42 × 10 –18
Equal masses of H 2 ,O 2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27ºC in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H 2 : O 2 : methane would be:
8 : 16 : 1
16 : 8 : 1
16 : 1 : 2
8 : 1 : 2
If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centred atom and one corner atom in the cube will be:
a 3 2
a 3 4
a 4 3
a 2 3
Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles ?
Coagulation
Electrophoresis
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect
Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?
KCl
NaCl
Na 2 CO 3
CuSO 4
Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression ?
KCl
C 6 H 12 O 6
Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3
K 2 SO 4
When 22.4 litres of H 2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl 2 (g), each at S.T.P., the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to:
1 mole of HCl(g)
2 mole of HCl(g)
0.5 mol of HCl(g)
5 mol of HCl(g)
When 0.1 mol − 2 4 MnO is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize − 2 4 MnO to − 4 MnO is:
96500 C
2 × 96500 C
9650 C
96.50 C
Using the Gibbs energy change, ∆ Gº = + 63.3 kJ, for the following reaction, Ag 2 CO 3 (s) 2Ag + (aq) + − 2 3 CO (aq) The K sp of Ag 2 CO 3 (s) in water at 25ºC is: (R = 8.314 J K –1 mol –1 )
2 × 10 –26
8.0 × 10 –12
9 × 10 –3
7.9 × 10 –2 Ans. [2] ∆ Gº = – 2.303 RT log K sp 63.3 × 1000 = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log K SP log K SP = 298 314 . 8 303 . 2 1000 3 . 63 × × × − log K SP = – 11.09 ∴ K SP = anti log (–11.09) K SP = 8.0 × 10 –12
The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O 2 at STP will be:
5.4 g
10.8 g
54.0 g
108.0 g
Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas ?
∆ S is negative and, therefore, ∆ H should be highly positive.
∆ S is negative and therefore, ∆ H should be highly negative
∆ S is positive and, therefore, ∆ H should be negative
∆ S is positive and, therefore, ∆ H should also be highly positive.
For the reversible reaction: N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g) + heat The equilibrium shifts in forward direction:
by increasing the concentration of NH 3 (g)
by decreasing the pressure
by decreasing the concentrations of N 2 (g) and H 2 (g)
by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature
For the reaction: X 2 O 4 ( l ) → 2XO 2 (g) ∆ U = 2.1 k cal, ∆ S = 20 cal K –1 at 300 K Hence, ∆ G is:
7 k cal
– 2.7 k cal
9.3 k cal
– 9.3 k cal
For a given exothermic reaction, K P and K' P are the equilibrium constant at temperatures T 1 and T 2 , respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T 1 and T 2 , it is readily observed that-
K P > K' P
K P < K' P
K P = K' P
K P = P ' K 1
Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? (1) H – > H + > H (2) Na + > F – > O 2– (3) F – > O 2– > Na + (4) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > N 3– Ans. [Bonus] Sol. All option are incorrect order of ionic radius Ionic radius H – > H + > H Na + > F – > O –2 F – > O –2 > Na + Al +3 > Mg +2 > N –3 Correct order of ionic radius are
H – > H > H +
O –2 > F – > Na +
O –2 > F – > Na +
N –3 > Mg +2 > Al +3
1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56g O 2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much ? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
Mg, 0.16g
O 2 , 0.16 g
Mg, 0.44 g
O 2 , 0.28 g
The pair of compounds that can exist together is:
FeCl 3 , SnCl 2
HgCl 2 , SnCl 2
FeCl 2 , SnCl 2
FeCl 3 , KI
Be 2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ?
H +
Li +
Na +
Mg 2+
Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?
CO 2
CH 4
NH 3
NF 3
Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ?
− 3 N
− 3 NO
− 2 NO
CO 2
Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order:
H 2 S < H 2 Se H 2 Te
H 2 Se < H 2 S < H 2 Te
H 2 Te < H 2 S < H 2 Se
H 2 Se < H 2 Te < H 2 S
(a) H 2 O 2 + O 3 → H 2 O + 2O 2 (b) H 2 O 2 + Ag 2 O → 2Ag + H 2 O + O 2 Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:
oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)
reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)
reducing in (a) and (b)
oxidizing in (a) and (b)
Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is:
Saccharine
Sucralose
Aspartame
Alitame
In acidic medium, H 2 O 2 changes 2 7 2 O Cr − to CrO 5 which has two (–O–O–) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5 is:
+5
+3
+6
–10
The reaction of aqueous KMnO 4 with H 2 O 2 in acidic conditions gives:
Mn 4+ and O 2
Mn 2+ and O 2
Mn 2+ and O 3
Mn 4+ and MnO 2
Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is:
[Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+
[Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+
[Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
[Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+
Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)
Ti 3+
Ni 2+
Cr 3+
Mn 2+
Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent ?
mer – [Co (NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
cis – [PtCl 2 (NH 3 ) 2 ]
cis – K 2 [Pt Cl 2 Br 2 ]
Na 2 CoCl 4
Reason of lanthanoid contraction is :
Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
Increasing nuclear charge
Decreasing nuclear charge
Decreasing screening effect
In the following reaction, the product (A) is : N ≡ NCl – + + N H 2 dye Yellow H ) A ( → +
N=N– NH
N=N N H 2
N=N N H 2
N=N N H 2
Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt − + X RN 2 ?
− + X N CH 2 3
− + X N H C 2 5 6
− + X N CH CH 2 2 3
− + X N CH H C 2 2 5 6
D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :
H – C – OH | H O – C – H | HO – C – H | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH
HO – C – H | H O – C – H | H – C – OH | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH
HO – C – H | H – C – OH | HO – C – H | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH
H – C – OH | H O – C – H | H – C – OH | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH
Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?
Thyroxin
Insulin
Adrenaline
Estradiol
Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer ?
( CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2 ) | Cl n
( CH 2 – CH ) | Cl n
( N – (CH 2 ) 6 – N – C – (CH 2 ) 4 – C ) || n O || O | H | H
| OH CH 2 | CH 2 n
Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
Propylene and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH
Benzoic acid and ethanol
Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
Benzoic acid and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH
Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?
Ozone
Acrolein
Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Chlorofluorocarbons
In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H 2 SO 4 . The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :
37.33
45.33
35.33
43.33
What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br 2 in the presence of FeBr 3 ? CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br
CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br
CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br
CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br
Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses? (i) CH 2 Cl (ii) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl (iii) H 3 C – CH – CH 2 Cl | CH 3 (iv) C | CH 3 | C 2 H 5 Cl H
(i) and (ii)
(ii) and (iv)
(iii) and (iv)
(i) and (iv) Ans. [Bonus] Sol. Wrong framing of questions. Only C C 2 H 5 Cl H CH 3 by reaction with KOH undergo reacemisation. But suitable option is absent therefore BONUS.
Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole ?
CH 3 CHO ; RMgX
C 6 H 5 OH ; NaOH ; CH 3 I
C 6 H 5 OH ; neutral FeCl 3
C 6 H 5 – CH 3 ; CH 3 COCl ; AlCl 3
Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate ?
2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol
Benzoic acid
o – Nitrophenol
Benzenesulphonic acid
Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction ?
CHO
COCH 3
| | CHO CH 3
| | CHO N O 2
Identify Z in the sequence of reactions: \[ Z \xrightarrow{\text{NaOH, } \Delta} Y \xrightarrow{\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{Br}} \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{OH} \]
CH 3 – (CH 2 ) 3 – O – CH 2 CH 3
(CH 3 ) 2 CH 2 – O – CH 2 CH 3
CH 3 (CH 2 ) 4 – O – CH 3
CH 3 CH 2 – CH(CH 3 )– O – CH 2 CH 3
Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product – (CO 2 )?
Ethane
Ethyne
Ethene
Ethanol
Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes ?
Sargassum
Ectocarpus
Ulothrix
Spirogyra
Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on -
Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
Mode of reproduction
Mode of nutrition
Complexity of body organisation
Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?
Morchella esculenta
Amantia muscaria
Neurospora sp.
Ustilago sp.
Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in -
Cell membrane structure
Mode of nutrition
Cell shape
Mode of reproduction
Which one of the following is wrong about Chara ?
Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
Globule and nuclue present on the same plant
Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
Globule is male reproductive structure
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?
Marchantia
Riccia
Funaria
Sphagnum
Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in -
Apple
Banana
Tomato
Potato
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as -
Vexillary
Imbricate
Twisted
Valvate
You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two ?
Secondary xylem
Secondary phloem
Protoxylem
Cortical cells
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
The seed in grasses is not endospermic
Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain
A sterile pistil is called a staminode
Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in -
having casparian strips
being imperforate
lacking nucleus
being lignified
An example of edible underground stem is -
Carrot
Groundnut
Sweet potato
Potato
Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria ?
Nucleoid
Ribosomes
Cell wall
Mesosomes
The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as -
Microtubules
Microfilaments
Intermediate filaments
Lamins Ans. [2] Sol . Microfilament are made up of 2 molecules of 6 nm actin protein. Microtubule are 25 nm hollow tube like structure while intermidiate filament are 10 nm and lamins are nuclear proteins.
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by -
Mitochondria
Vacuoles
Plastids
Ribosomes
During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains of 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C ?
G 0 and G 1
G 1 and S
Only G 2
G 2 and M
Match the following and select the correct answer :
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Centriole | (i) Infoldings in mitochondria |
| (b) Chlorophyll | (ii) Thylakoids |
| (c) Cristae | (iii) Nucleic acids |
| (d) Ribozymes | (iv) Basal body cilia or flagella |
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut coleptile stumps. of what significance is this experiment ?
It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin
It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances
It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
It demonstrated polar movement of auxins
Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in -
Senescent leaves
Young leaves
Roots
Bunds
In which one of the following processes CO 2 is not released ?
Aerobic respiration in plants
Aerobic respiration in animals
Alcoholic fermentation
Lactate fermentation
Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of-
Rhodospirillum
Spirogyra
Chlamydomonas
Ulva
A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them ?
Mutated
Embolised
Etiolated
Defoliated
Which one of the following growth regulators is known as 'stress hormone' ?
Abscissic acid
Ethylene
GA 3
Indole acetic acid
Geitonogamy involves -
Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower
Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population
Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in -
Pteris
Funaria
Lilium
Pinus
An aggregate fruit is one which develops from-
Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
Complete inflorescence
Multicarpellary superior ovary
Pollen tablets are available in the market for -
In vitro fertilization
Breeding programmes
Supplementing food
Ex situ conservation
Function of filiform apparatus is to -
Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
Stimulate division of generative cell
Produce nectar
Guide the entry of pollen tube
Non-albuminous seed is produced in -
Maize
Castor
Wheat
Pea
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?
Polio virus
Tobacco mosaic virus
Measles virus
Retrovirus
Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
Transcription – Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
Translation – Using information in m- RNA to make protein
Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter
Transformation was discovered by -
Meselson and Stahl
Hershey and Chase
Griffith
Watson and Crick
Fruit colour in squash is an example of -
Recessive epistasis
Dominant epistasis
Complementary genes
Inhibitory genes
Viruses have -
DNA enclosed in a protein coat
Prokaryotic nucleus
Single chromosome
Both DNA and RNA
The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is -
Insulin
Estrogen
Thyroxin
Progesterone
An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use-
Electrophoresis
Blotting
Autoradiography
PCR
In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by -
PCR and RAPD
Northern blotting
Electrophoresis and HPLC
Microscopy
An alga which can be employed as food for human being is -
Ulothrix
Chlorella
Spirogyra
Polysiphonia
Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ?
Bacterial artificial chromosome
Yeast artificial chromosome
Plasmid
Cosmid
An example of ex situ conservation is -
National Park
Seed Bank
Wildlife Sanctuary
Sacred Grove
A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the -
trees are very healthy
trees are heavily infested
location is highly polluted
location is not polluted
Match the following and select the correct option :
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Earthworm | (i) Pioneer species |
| (b) Succession | (ii) Detritivore |
| (c) Ecosystem | (iii) natality service |
| (d) Population | (iv) Pollination growth |
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called -
Vulnerable
Endemic
Critically Endangered
Extinct
The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called -
Ionosphere
Mesosphere
Stratosphere
Troposphere
The organization which publishes the Red List of species is -
ICFRE
IUCN
UNEP
WWF
Select the Taxon mentioned that represent both marine and fresh water species -
Echinoderms
Ctenophora
Cephalochordata
Cnidaria
Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall ?
Cyanobacteria
Sea-fan ( Gorgonia )
Saccharomyces
Blue-green algae
Planaria possesses high capacity of -
Metamorphosis
Regeneration
Alternation of generation
Bioluminescence
A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is -
Pristis
Torpedo
Trygon
Scoliodon
Choose the correctly matched pair -
Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
Cartilage – Loose connective tissue
Choose the correctly matched pair -
Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium
Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium
Tubular parts of nephrons –Cuboidal epithelium
Inner surface of bronchioles – squamous epithelium
In 'S' phase of the cell cycle -
Amount of DNA-doubles in each cell
Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
Chromosome number is increased
Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
The motile bacteria are able to move by -
Fimbriae
Flagella
Cilia
Pili
Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action -
Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate ?
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
Ribose 5-phophate
The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis -
Pachytene
Zygotene
Diplotene
Diakinesis
The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by -
Lipase
Trypsin
Rennin
Pepsin
Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called -
active transport
facilitated transport
simple diffusion
co-transport mechanism
Approximately seventy percent of carbon- dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs -
as bicarbonate ions
in the form of dissolved gas molecules
by binding of R.B.C.
as carbamino-haemoglobin
Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has -
both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
both A and B antibodies in the plasma.
no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma.
both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies.
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?
Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.
Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule -
Increase in aldosterone levels
Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
Decrease in aldosteron levels
Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
Select the correct matching of the type of the point with the example in human skeletal system - Type of joint Example
Cartilaginous between frontal and joint parintal
Pivot joint between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
Hinge joint between humerus and pectoral girdle
Gliding joint between carpals
Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at -
the neuromuscular junction
the transverse tubules
the myofibril
the sacroplasmic reticulum
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt -
short-term memory
co-ordination during locomotion
executive functions, such as decision making
regulation of body temperature
Which one of the following statement is not correct ?
Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments.
In retina the rods have the photo pigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments
Retinal is derivative of Vitamin C
Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only
Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function -
Oxytocin-posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.
Melatonin-pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
Progesterone-corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs.
Atrial natriuretic factor-ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.
Fight-or-flight reaction cause activation of -
the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
the kidney, leading to suppression of reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway
the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene
the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels
The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is -
Urethra
Ureter
Vas deferens
Vasa efferentia
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce -
estrogen only
progesterone
human chorionic gonadotropin
relaxin only
Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female -
High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium
High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo
High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone
High level of hCG stimulates the thicknening of endometrium
Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which-
small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
ovaries are removed surgically
small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
uterus is removed surgically
Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD) ?
Multiload 375
LNG-20
Cervical cap
Vault
Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of -
Ovum into the fallopian tube
Zygote into the fallopian tube
Zygote into the uterus
Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube
A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ?
25 %
0 %
50 %
75 %
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is -
0.4
0.5
0.6
0.7
A human female with Turner's syndrome -
has 45 chromosomes with XO
has one additional X chromosome
exhibits male characters
is able to produce children with normal husband
Select the correct option - Direction of RNA synthesis Direction of reading of the template DNA strand
5' — 3' 3' —5'
3' — 5' 5' — 3'
5' — 3' 5' — 3'
3' — 5' 3' — 5'
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are -
T-DNA
BAC and YAC
Expression Vectors
T/A Cloning Vectors
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of-
Analogous organs
Adaptive radiation
Homologous organs
Convergent evolution
Which one of the following are analogous structures ?
Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon
Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
Flippers of Dolphin and legs of Horse
Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below ?
Hallucinogen
Depressant
Stimulant
Pain-killer
At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
When the infected retro virus enters host cells
When HIV damages large number of helper T-Lymphocytes
When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken ?
Apical meristem only
Palisade parenchyma
Both apical and axillary meristems
Epidermis only
What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?
Methane and CO 2 only
Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO 2
Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O 2
Hydrogen sulphide and CO 2
Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to -
Western Ghat
Meghalaya
Corbett National Park
Keolado National Park
Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.
| Consumers | C |
|---|---|
| A | |
| Soil solution | B |
| Run off | D |
| Uptake |
Rock minerals Detritus Litter fall Producers
Litter fall Producers Rock minerals Detritus
Detritus Rock minerals Producers Litter fall
Producers Litter fall Rock minerals Detritus
Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What do the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluses
Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animals groups
Molluscs Other animals group Crustaceans Insects
Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal groups
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes -
gases like sulphur dioxide
particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
gases like ozone and methane
particular matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain ? plant → mice → snake → peacock
0.02 J
0.002 J
0.2 J
0.0002 J
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2014 Question Paper, Code P. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.