NEET PYQs · 2014 · Code Q

NEET 2014 — Code Q

Official NTA NEET-UG 2014 question paper, set Q. 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.

Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses? (i) CH 2 Cl (ii) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl (iii) H 3 C – CH – CH 2 Cl | CH 3 (iv) C | CH 3 | C 2 H 5 Cl H

(1)

(ii) and (iv)

(2)

(iii) and (iv)

(3)

(i) and (iv) Ans. [Bonus] Sol. Wrong framing of questions. Only C C 2 H 5 Cl H CH 3 by reaction with KOH undergo reacemisation. But suitable option is absent therefore BONUS.

(4)

(i) and (ii)

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Answer: B

The reaction of aqueous KMnO 4 with H 2 O 2 in acidic conditions gives:

(1)

Mn 2+ and O 2

(2)

Mn 2+ and O 3

(3)

Mn 4+ and MnO 2

(4)

Mn 4+ and O 2

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Answer: A
3
Environmental Chemistry

Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical Smog?

(1)

Acrolein

(2)

Peroxyacetyl nitrate

(3)

Chlorofluorocarbons

(4)

Ozone

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Answer: C

Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt − + X RN 2 ?

(1)

− + X N H C 2 5 6

(2)

− + X N CH CH 2 2 3

(3)

− + X N CH H C 2 2 5 6

(4)

− + X N CH 2 3

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Answer: A

Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings?

(1)

Insulin

(2)

Adrenaline

(3)

Estradiol

(4)

Thyroxin

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Answer: B

1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56g O 2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much ? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

(1)

O 2 , 0.16 g

(2)

Mg, 0.44 g

(3)

O 2 , 0.28 g

(4)

Mg, 0.16g

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Answer: D

What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br 2 in the presence of FeBr 3 ? CH 3 CH 3

(1)

CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br

(2)

CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br

(3)

CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br

(4)

CH 3 CH 3 Br and CH 3 CH 3 Br

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Answer: C

Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?

(1)

Benzoic acid and ethanol

(2)

Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

(3)

Benzoic acid and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH

(4)

Propylene and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH

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Answer: B

In acidic medium, H 2 O 2 changes 2 7 2 O Cr − to CrO 5 which has two (–O–O–) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO 5 is:

(1)

+3

(2)

+6

(3)

–10

(4)

+5

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Answer: B

Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? (1) H – > H + > H (2) Na + > F – > O 2– (3) F – > O 2– > Na + (4) Al 3+ > Mg 2+ > N 3– Ans. [Bonus] Sol. All option are incorrect order of ionic radius Ionic radius H – > H + > H Na + > F – > O –2 F – > O –2 > Na + Al +3 > Mg +2 > N –3 Correct order of ionic radius are

(1)

O –2 > F – > Na +

(2)

O –2 > F – > Na +

(3)

N –3 > Mg +2 > Al +3

(4)

H – > H > H +

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Answer: A

Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?

(1)

NaCl

(2)

Na 2 CO 3

(3)

CuSO 4

(4)

KCl

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Answer: B

Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate ?

(1)

Benzoic acid

(2)

o – Nitrophenol

(3)

Benzenesulphonic acid

(4)

2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol

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Answer: B

For the reaction: X 2 O 4 ( l ) → 2XO 2 (g) ∆ U = 2.1 k cal, ∆ S = 20 cal K –1 at 300 K Hence, ∆ G is:

(1)

7 k cal

(2)

9.3 k cal

(3)

– 9.3 k cal

(4)

– 2.7 k cal

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Answer: D

In the following reaction, the product (A) is : N ≡ NCl – + + N H 2 dye Yellow H ) A (  →  +

(1)

 N=N  N H 2

(2)

 N=N– NH 

(3)

 N=N  N H 2

(4)

 N=N  N H 2

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Answer: D

Using the Gibbs energy change, ∆ Gº = + 63.3 kJ, for the following reaction, Ag 2 CO 3 (s) 2Ag + (aq) + − 2 3 CO (aq) The K sp of Ag 2 CO 3 (s) in water at 25ºC is: (R = 8.314 J K –1 mol –1 )

(1)

8.0 × 10 –12

(2)

9 × 10 –3

(3)

7.9 × 10 –2 Ans. [2] ∆ Gº = – 2.303 RT log K sp 63.3 × 1000 = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log K SP log K SP = 298 314 . 8 303 . 2 1000 3 . 63 × × × − log K SP = – 11.09 ∴ K SP = anti log (–11.09) K SP = 8.0 × 10 –12

(4)

2 × 10 –26

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Answer: A

Identify Z in the sequence of reactions: \[ Z \xrightarrow{\text{NaOH, } \Delta} Y \xrightarrow{\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{Br}} \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{OH} \]

(1)

CH 3 – (CH 2 ) 3 – O – CH 2 CH 3

(2)

CH 3 (CH 2 ) 4 – O – CH 3

(3)

CH 3 CH 2 – CH(CH 3 )– O – CH 2 CH 3

(4)

(CH 3 ) 2 CH 2 – O – CH 2 CH 3

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Answer: A

In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H 2 SO 4 . The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :

(1)

45.33

(2)

35.33

(3)

43.33

(4)

37.33

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Answer: D

Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles ?

(1)

Electrophoresis

(2)

Electro-osmosis

(3)

Tyndall effect

(4)

Coagulation

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Answer: C

For a given exothermic reaction, K P and K' P are the equilibrium constant at temperatures T 1 and T 2 , respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T 1 and T 2 , it is readily observed that-

(1)

K P > K' P

(2)

K P < K' P

(3)

K P = P ' K 1

(4)

K P = K' P

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Answer: A

When 22.4 litres of H 2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl 2 (g), each at S.T.P., the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to:

(1)

2 mole of HCl(g)

(2)

0.5 mol of HCl(g)

(3)

5 mol of HCl(g)

(4)

1 mole of HCl(g)

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Answer: D

Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer ?

(1)

( CH 2 – CH ) | Cl n

(2)

( N – (CH 2 ) 6 – N – C – (CH 2 ) 4 – C ) || n O || O | H | H

(3)

| OH CH 2 | CH 2 n

(4)

( CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2 ) | Cl n

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Answer: C

Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction ?

(1)

 COCH 3

(2)

| | CHO N O 2

(3)

 CHO

(4)

| | CHO CH 3

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Answer: B

Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm: (Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10 34 Js, speed of light c = 3 × 10 8 ms –1 )

(1)

6.67 × 10 15

(2)

42 × 10 –15

(3)

42 × 10 –18

(4)

6.67 × 10 11

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Answer: C

Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product – (CO 2 )?

(1)

Ethyne

(2)

Ethene

(3)

Ethanol

(4)

Ethane

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Answer: A

Be 2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ?

(1)

Li +

(2)

Na +

(3)

Mg 2+

(4)

H +

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Answer: A

Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At. no. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

(1)

Ni 2+

(2)

Cr 3+

(3)

Mn 2+

(4)

Ti 3+

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Answer: A

The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O 2 at STP will be:

(1)

10.8 g

(2)

54.0 g

(3)

108.0 g

(4)

5.4 g

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Answer: C

For the reversible reaction: N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH 3 (g) + heat The equilibrium shifts in forward direction:

(1)

by decreasing the pressure

(2)

by decreasing the concentrations of N 2 (g) and H 2 (g)

(3)

by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

(4)

by increasing the concentration of NH 3 (g)

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Answer: C

The pair of compounds that can exist together is:

(1)

HgCl 2 , SnCl 2

(2)

FeCl 3 , SnCl 2

(3)

FeCl 3 , KI

(4)

FeCl 2 , SnCl 2

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Answer: D

Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent ?

(1)

cis – [PtCl 2 (NH 3 ) 2 ]

(2)

cis – K 2 [Pt Cl 2 Br 2 ]

(3)

Na 2 CoCl 4

(4)

mer – [Co (NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]

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Answer: A

Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) is:

(1)

[Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+

(2)

[Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

(3)

[Co(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+

(4)

[Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+

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Answer: A
32
Solid State

If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centred atom and one corner atom in the cube will be:

(1)

a 3 4

(2)

a 4 3

(3)

a 3 2

(4)

a 2 3

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Answer: D

Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ?

(1)

− 3 NO

(2)

− 2 NO

(3)

CO 2

(4)

− 3 N

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Answer: A

Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?

(1)

CH 4

(2)

NH 3

(3)

NF 3

(4)

CO 2

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Answer: B

Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order:

(1)

H 2 Se < H 2 S < H 2 Te

(2)

H 2 Te < H 2 S < H 2 Se

(3)

H 2 Se < H 2 Te < H 2 S

(4)

H 2 S < H 2 Se H 2 Te

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Answer: D

Reason of lanthanoid contraction is :

(1)

Increasing nuclear charge

(2)

Decreasing nuclear charge

(3)

Decreasing screening effect

(4)

Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals

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Answer: D

Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas ?

(1)

∆ S is negative and therefore, ∆ H should be highly negative

(2)

∆ S is positive and, therefore, ∆ H should be negative

(3)

∆ S is positive and, therefore, ∆ H should also be highly positive.

(4)

∆ S is negative and, therefore, ∆ H should be highly positive.

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Answer: A

Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is:

(1)

Sucralose

(2)

Aspartame

(3)

Alitame

(4)

Saccharine

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Answer: B

Equal masses of H 2 ,O 2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27ºC in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H 2 : O 2 : methane would be:

(1)

16 : 8 : 1

(2)

16 : 1 : 2

(3)

8 : 1 : 2

(4)

8 : 16 : 1

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Answer: B

(a) H 2 O 2 + O 3 → H 2 O + 2O 2 (b) H 2 O 2 + Ag 2 O → 2Ag + H 2 O + O 2 Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:

(1)

reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)

(2)

reducing in (a) and (b)

(3)

oxidizing in (a) and (b)

(4)

oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)

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Answer: B

Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole ?

(1)

C 6 H 5 OH ; NaOH ; CH 3 I

(2)

C 6 H 5 OH ; neutral FeCl 3

(3)

C 6 H 5 – CH 3 ; CH 3 COCl ; AlCl 3

(4)

CH 3 CHO ; RMgX

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Answer: A

When 0.1 mol − 2 4 MnO is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize − 2 4 MnO to − 4 MnO is:

(1)

2 × 96500 C

(2)

9650 C

(3)

96.50 C

(4)

96500 C

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Answer: B

Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression ?

(1)

C 6 H 12 O 6

(2)

Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3

(3)

K 2 SO 4

(4)

KCl

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Answer: B

What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers n = 3, l = l, m l = 0

(1)

2

(2)

3

(3)

4

(4)

1

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Answer: D

D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :

(1)

H – C – OH | H O – C – H | HO – C – H | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH

(2)

H – C – OH | H O – C – H | H – C – OH | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH

(3)

HO – C – H | H – C – OH | HO – C – H | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH

(4)

HO – C – H | H O – C – H | H – C – OH | H – C – OH | CH 2 OH | CH = NOH

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Answer: B

Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on -

(1)

Mode of reproduction

(2)

Mode of nutrition

(3)

Complexity of body organisation

(4)

Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus

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Answer: D

The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce -

(1)

progesterone

(2)

human chorionic gonadotropin

(3)

relaxin only

(4)

estrogen only

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Answer: A

In which one of the following processes CO 2 is not released ?

(1)

Aerobic respiration in animals

(2)

Alcoholic fermentation

(3)

Lactate fermentation

(4)

Aerobic respiration in plants

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Answer: C

Choose the correctly matched pair -

(1)

Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue

(2)

Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue

(3)

Tendon – Specialized connective tissue

(4)

Cartilage – Loose connective tissue

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Answer: B

Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?

(1)

Tobacco mosaic virus

(2)

Measles virus

(3)

Retrovirus

(4)

Polio virus

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Answer: A

Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to -

(1)

Meghalaya

(2)

Corbett National Park

(3)

Keolado National Park

(4)

Western Ghat

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Answer: C

You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two ?

(1)

Secondary phloem

(2)

Protoxylem

(3)

Cortical cells

(4)

Secondary xylem

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Answer: B

In 'S' phase of the cell cycle -

(1)

Amount of DNA remains same in each cell

(2)

Chromosome number is increased

(3)

Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell

(4)

Amount of DNA-doubles in each cell

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Answer: D

A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called -

(1)

Endemic

(2)

Critically Endangered

(3)

Extinct

(4)

Vulnerable

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Answer: B

Fruit colour in squash is an example of -

(1)

Dominant epistasis

(2)

Complementary genes

(3)

Inhibitory genes

(4)

Recessive epistasis

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Answer: A

Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function -

(1)

Melatonin-pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle

(2)

Progesterone-corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs.

(3)

Atrial natriuretic factor-ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

(4)

Oxytocin-posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.

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Answer: A

An example of edible underground stem is -

(1)

Groundnut

(2)

Sweet potato

(3)

Potato

(4)

Carrot

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Answer: C

Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule -

(1)

Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels

(2)

Decrease in aldosteron levels

(3)

Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

(4)

Increase in aldosterone levels

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Answer: D

Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria ?

(1)

Ribosomes

(2)

Cell wall

(3)

Mesosomes

(4)

Nucleoid

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Answer: C

Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action -

(1)

Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate

(2)

A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate

(3)

Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

(4)

Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site

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Answer: A

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below ?

(1)

Depressant

(2)

Stimulant

(3)

Pain-killer

(4)

Hallucinogen

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Answer: D

Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called -

(1)

facilitated transport

(2)

simple diffusion

(3)

co-transport mechanism

(4)

active transport

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Answer: A

The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as -

(1)

Microfilaments

(2)

Intermediate filaments

(3)

Lamins Ans. [2] Sol . Microfilament are made up of 2 molecules of 6 nm actin protein. Microtubule are 25 nm hollow tube like structure while intermidiate filament are 10 nm and lamins are nuclear proteins.

(4)

Microtubules

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Answer: A

Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall ?

(1)

Sea-fan ( Gorgonia )

(2)

Saccharomyces

(3)

Blue-green algae

(4)

Cyanobacteria

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Answer: A

Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in -

(1)

being imperforate

(2)

lacking nucleus

(3)

being lignified

(4)

having casparian strips

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Answer: A

Select the correct matching of the type of the point with the example in human skeletal system - Type of joint Example

(1)

Pivot joint between third and fourth cervical vertebrae

(2)

Hinge joint between humerus and pectoral girdle

(3)

Gliding joint between carpals

(4)

Cartilaginous between frontal and joint parintal

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Answer: C

A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ?

(1)

0 %

(2)

50 %

(3)

75 %

(4)

25 %

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Answer: B

A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white-coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them ?

(1)

Embolised

(2)

Etiolated

(3)

Defoliated

(4)

Mutated

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Answer: B

Function of filiform apparatus is to -

(1)

Stimulate division of generative cell

(2)

Produce nectar

(3)

Guide the entry of pollen tube

(4)

Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma

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Answer: C

Choose the correctly matched pair -

(1)

Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium

(2)

Tubular parts of nephrons –Cuboidal epithelium

(3)

Inner surface of bronchioles – squamous epithelium

(4)

Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium

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Answer: B

Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of-

(1)

Adaptive radiation

(2)

Homologous organs

(3)

Convergent evolution

(4)

Analogous organs

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Answer: B

Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate ?

(1)

Sucrose

(2)

Lactose

(3)

Ribose 5-phophate

(4)

Maltose

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Answer: A

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?

(1)

When the infected retro virus enters host cells

(2)

When HIV damages large number of helper T-Lymphocytes

(3)

When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

(4)

Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

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Answer: B

What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?

(1)

Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO 2

(2)

Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O 2

(3)

Hydrogen sulphide and CO 2

(4)

Methane and CO 2 only

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Answer: A

Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of-

(1)

Spirogyra

(2)

Chlamydomonas

(3)

Ulva

(4)

Rhodospirillum

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Answer: D

Match the following and select the correct option :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Earthworm(i) Pioneer species
(b) Succession(ii) Detritivore
(c) Ecosystem(iii) natality service
(d) Population(iv) Pollination growth
(1)

(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2)

(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3)

(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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Answer: C

A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the -

(1)

trees are heavily infested

(2)

location is highly polluted

(3)

location is not polluted

(4)

trees are very healthy

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Answer: C

In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by -

(1)

Northern blotting

(2)

Electrophoresis and HPLC

(3)

Microscopy

(4)

PCR and RAPD

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Answer: C

An alga which can be employed as food for human being is -

(1)

Chlorella

(2)

Spirogyra

(3)

Polysiphonia

(4)

Ulothrix

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Answer: A

Which one of the following growth regulators is known as 'stress hormone' ?

(1)

Ethylene

(2)

GA 3

(3)

Indole acetic acid

(4)

Abscissic acid

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Answer: D

The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis -

(1)

Zygotene

(2)

Diplotene

(3)

Diakinesis

(4)

Pachytene

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Answer: D

Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of -

(1)

Zygote into the fallopian tube

(2)

Zygote into the uterus

(3)

Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

(4)

Ovum into the fallopian tube

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Answer: A

An example of ex situ conservation is -

(1)

Seed Bank

(2)

Wildlife Sanctuary

(3)

Sacred Grove

(4)

National Park

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Answer: A

The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by -

(1)

Vacuoles

(2)

Plastids

(3)

Ribosomes

(4)

Mitochondria

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Answer: A

Which one of the following is wrong about Chara ?

(1)

Globule and nuclue present on the same plant

(2)

Upper antheridium and lower oogonium

(3)

Globule is male reproductive structure

(4)

Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium

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Answer: B

The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is -

(1)

Estrogen

(2)

Thyroxin

(3)

Progesterone

(4)

Insulin

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one of the following statement is not correct ?

(1)

In retina the rods have the photo pigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments

(2)

Retinal is derivative of Vitamin C

(3)

Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only

(4)

Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments.

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1)

Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit

(2)

A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

(3)

A sterile pistil is called a staminode

(4)

The seed in grasses is not endospermic

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Pollen tablets are available in the market for -

(1)

Breeding programmes

(2)

Supplementing food

(3)

Ex situ conservation

(4)

In vitro fertilization

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Select the correct option - Direction of RNA synthesis Direction of reading of the template DNA strand

(1)

3' — 5' 5' — 3'

(2)

5' — 3' 5' — 3'

(3)

3' — 5' 3' — 5'

(4)

5' — 3' 3' —5'

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The organization which publishes the Red List of species is -

(1)

IUCN

(2)

UNEP

(3)

WWF

(4)

ICFRE

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A human female with Turner's syndrome -

(1)

has one additional X chromosome

(2)

exhibits male characters

(3)

is able to produce children with normal husband

(4)

has 45 chromosomes with XO

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Match the following and select the correct answer :

Column - IColumn - II
(a) Centriole(i) Infoldings in mitochondria
(b) Chlorophyll(ii) Thylakoids
(c) Cristae(iii) Nucleic acids
(d) Ribozymes(iv) Basal body cilia or flagella
(1)

(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2)

(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3)

(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4)

(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Approximately seventy percent of carbon- dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs -

(1)

in the form of dissolved gas molecules

(2)

by binding of R.B.C.

(3)

as carbamino-haemoglobin

(4)

as bicarbonate ions

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ?

(1)

Yeast artificial chromosome

(2)

Plasmid

(3)

Cosmid

(4)

Bacterial artificial chromosome

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called -

(1)

Mesosphere

(2)

Stratosphere

(3)

Troposphere

(4)

Ionosphere

Show answer & solution
Answer: B
97
Fungi

Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?

(1)

Amantia muscaria

(2)

Neurospora sp.

(3)

Ustilago sp.

(4)

Morchella esculenta

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes -

(1)

particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above

(2)

gases like ozone and methane

(3)

particular matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less

(4)

gases like sulphur dioxide

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Select the Taxon mentioned that represent both marine and fresh water species -

(1)

Ctenophora

(2)

Cephalochordata

(3)

Cnidaria

(4)

Echinoderms

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as -

(1)

Imbricate

(2)

Twisted

(3)

Valvate

(4)

Vexillary

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

An aggregate fruit is one which develops from-

(1)

Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium

(2)

Complete inflorescence

(3)

Multicarpellary superior ovary

(4)

Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are -

(1)

BAC and YAC

(2)

Expression Vectors

(3)

T/A Cloning Vectors

(4)

T-DNA

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken ?

(1)

Palisade parenchyma

(2)

Both apical and axillary meristems

(3)

Epidermis only

(4)

Apical meristem only

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Fight-or-flight reaction cause activation of -

(1)

the kidney, leading to suppression of reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway

(2)

the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene

(3)

the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

(4)

the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at -

(1)

the transverse tubules

(2)

the myofibril

(3)

the sacroplasmic reticulum

(4)

the neuromuscular junction

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Planaria possesses high capacity of -

(1)

Regeneration

(2)

Alternation of generation

(3)

Bioluminescence

(4)

Metamorphosis

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in -

(1)

Banana

(2)

Tomato

(3)

Potato

(4)

Apple

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in -

(1)

Young leaves

(2)

Roots

(3)

Bunds

(4)

Senescent leaves

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Geitonogamy involves -

(1)

Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower

(2)

Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population

(3)

Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

(4)

Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Viruses have -

(1)

Prokaryotic nucleus

(2)

Single chromosome

(3)

Both DNA and RNA

(4)

DNA enclosed in a protein coat

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?

(1)

Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output

(2)

Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

(3)

Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

(4)

Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is -

(1)

Torpedo

(2)

Trygon

(3)

Scoliodon

(4)

Pristis

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use-

(1)

Blotting

(2)

Autoradiography

(3)

PCR

(4)

Electrophoresis

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in -

(1)

Mode of nutrition

(2)

Cell shape

(3)

Mode of reproduction

(4)

Cell membrane structure

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain ? plant → mice → snake → peacock

(1)

0.002 J

(2)

0.2 J

(3)

0.0002 J

(4)

0.02 J

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which one of the following are analogous structures ?

(1)

Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man

(2)

Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita

(3)

Flippers of Dolphin and legs of Horse

(4)

Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut coleptile stumps. of what significance is this experiment ?

(1)

It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances

(2)

It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin

(3)

It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

(4)

It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Non-albuminous seed is produced in -

(1)

Castor

(2)

Wheat

(3)

Pea

(4)

Maize

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains of 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C ?

(1)

G 1 and S

(2)

Only G 2

(3)

G 2 and M

(4)

G 0 and G 1

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Transformation was discovered by -

(1)

Hershey and Chase

(2)

Griffith

(3)

Watson and Crick

(4)

Meselson and Stahl

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.

ConsumersC
A
Soil solutionB
Run offD
Uptake
(1)

Litter fall Producers Rock minerals Detritus

(2)

Detritus Rock minerals Producers Litter fall

(3)

Producers Litter fall Rock minerals Detritus

(4)

Rock minerals Detritus Litter fall Producers

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is -

(1)

0.5

(2)

0.6

(3)

0.7

(4)

0.4

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which-

(1)

ovaries are removed surgically

(2)

small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up

(3)

uterus is removed surgically

(4)

small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

(1)

Riccia

(2)

Funaria

(3)

Sphagnum

(4)

Marchantia

Show answer & solution
Answer: C
125
Reproduction in Organisms

Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes ?

(1)

Ectocarpus

(2)

Ulothrix

(3)

Spirogyra

(4)

Sargassum

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1)

Translation – Using information in m- RNA to make protein

(2)

Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

(3)

Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter

(4)

Transcription – Writing information from DNA to t-RNA

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD) ?

(1)

LNG-20

(2)

Cervical cap

(3)

Vault

(4)

Multiload 375

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What do the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

(1)

Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animals groups

(2)

Molluscs Other animals group Crustaceans Insects

(3)

Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal groups

(4)

Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluses

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in -

(1)

Funaria

(2)

Lilium

(3)

Pinus

(4)

Pteris

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is -

(1)

Ureter

(2)

Vas deferens

(3)

Vasa efferentia

(4)

Urethra

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt -

(1)

co-ordination during locomotion

(2)

executive functions, such as decision making

(3)

regulation of body temperature

(4)

short-term memory

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female -

(1)

High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo

(2)

High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone

(3)

High level of hCG stimulates the thicknening of endometrium

(4)

High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by -

(1)

Trypsin

(2)

Rennin

(3)

Pepsin

(4)

Lipase

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The motile bacteria are able to move by -

(1)

Flagella

(2)

Cilia

(3)

Pili

(4)

Fimbriae

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has -

(1)

both A and B antibodies in the plasma.

(2)

no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma.

(3)

both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies.

(4)

both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are :

(1)

R 4 Q 0 ∈ π and Zero

(2)

R 4 Q 0 ∈ π and 2 0 R 4 Q ∈ π

(3)

Both are zero

(4)

Zero and 2 0 R 4 Q ∈ π

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

If n 1 , n 2 and n 3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by -

(1)

n 1 = 1 n 1 + 2 n 1 + 3 n 1

(2)

n 1 = 1 n 1 + 2 n 1 + 3 n 1

(3)

n = n 1 + n 2 + n 3

(4)

n = 1 n + 2 n + 3 n

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘ l ’. When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the extension produced in the wire is ‘ ∆ l ’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line ?

(1)

∆ l versus l 2

(2)

∆ l versus 1/ l 2

(3)

∆ l versus l

(4)

∆ l versus 1/ l

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work done by the system in the cycle is -

(1)

2P 0 V 0

(2)

P 0 V 0

(3)

Zero

(4)

2 V P 0 0

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K 1 and K 2 (K 1 < K 2 ) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field 'E' between the plates with distance 'd' as measured from plate P is correctly shown by : + + + + + + K 1 – – – – – – K 2 P Q

(1)

d → 0 ↑ E

(2)

d → 0 ↑ E

(3)

d → 0 ↑ E

(4)

d → 0 ↑ E

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The resistance in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω , respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance points is at 1.6 l 1 . The resistance 'R', is : G 5 Ω R Ω A B l 1 100 – l 1

(1)

15 Ω

(2)

20 Ω

(3)

25 Ω

(4)

10 Ω

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius 'r' is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:

(1)

Bv π r 2 /2 and P is at higher potential

(2)

π rBv and R is at higher potential

(3)

2rBv and R is at higher potential

(4)

Zero

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2m, 3m) at time t = 0. (6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and (13m, 14m) at time t = 5s. Average velocity vector       → av V from t = 0 to t = 5 s is -

(1)

3 7 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )

(2)

2 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )

(3)

5 11 ( j ˆ i ˆ + )

(4)

5 1 ( j ˆ 14 i ˆ 13 + )

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that 'O' is their common point for the two. The wires carry I 1 and I 2 currents, respectively. Point 'P' is lying at distance 'd' from 'O' along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point 'P' will be :

(1)

) I I ( d 2 μ 2 2 2 1 0 − π

(2)

2 / 1 2 2 2 1 0 ) I I ( d 2 μ + π

(3)

        π 2 1 0 I I d 2 μ

(4)

d 2 μ 0 π (I 1 + I 2 )

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A system consists of three masses m 1 , m 2 and m 3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m 1 hangs freely and m 2 and m 3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m 1 is – (Assume m 1 = m 2 = m 3 = m) P m 1 m 2 m 3

(1)

2 1 ( g μ −

(2)

2 1 ( g μ −

(3)

3 g 2 μ

(4)

9 ) g 1 ( g μ −

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be :

(1)

499 500 G

(2)

500 1 G

(3)

500 499 G

(4)

499 1 G

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has a magnetic dipole moment \( m \). Which configuration has the highest net magnetic dipole moment? (a) N S S N (b) S N N S (c) S N N 30º (d) S N N 60º

(1)

(b)

(2)

(c)

(3)

(d)

(4)

(a)

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of :

(1)

microscope and telescope both will increase

(2)

microscope and telescope both will decrease

(3)

microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase

(4)

microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The angle of a prism is 'A'. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incident 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ, of the prism is

(1)

2 cos A

(2)

2 1 cos A

(3)

tan A

(4)

2 sin A

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represents by the equation X = A cos ( ω t) where X = displacement at time t ω = frequency of oscillation Which one of the following graph shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’ ?

(1)

a O T t

(2)

a O T t Here a = acceleration at time t T = time period

(3)

a O T t

(4)

a O T t

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device. B V → A ↑ I Which of the following statement is correct?

(1)

It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

(2)

It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

(3)

It is for a LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively

(4)

It is V-I characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit current

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by -

(1)

O E R r

(2)

O E R r

(3)

O E R r

(4)

O E R r

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are - (velocity of sound = 340 ms –1 )

(1)

5

(2)

7

(3)

6

(4)

4

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω . The power loss in the wire is :

(1)

19.2 kW

(2)

19.2 J

(3)

12.2 kW

(4)

19.2 W

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :

(1)

2 mm

(2)

4 cm

(3)

4 mm

(4)

2 cm

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are -

(1)

[FVT –1 ]

(2)

[FVT –2 ]

(3)

[FV –1 T –1 ]

(4)

[FV –1 T]

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on : (a) type of semiconductor material (b) amount of doping (c) temperature Which one of the following is correct?

(1)

(b) only

(2)

(b) and (c) only

(3)

(a), (b) and (c)

(4)

(a) and (b) only

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

The Binding energy per nucleon of Li 7 3 and He 4 2 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively. In the nuclear reaction Q He He H Li 4 2 4 2 1 1 7 3 + + → + , the value of energy Q released is

(1)

–2.4 MeV

(2)

8.4 MeV

(3)

17.3 MeV

(4)

19.6 MeV

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :

(1)

75

(2)

60

(3)

50

(4)

25

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Light with an energy flux of 25 × 10 4 Wm –2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm 2 , the average force exerted on the surface is

(1)

50 × 10 –6 N

(2)

20 × 10 –6 N

(3)

0 × 10 –6 N

(4)

25 × 10 –6 N

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

In a region the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is

(1)

30N

(2)

24 N

(3)

N 35 4

(4)

N 5 6

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead of him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be :-

(1)

1372 Hz

(2)

1412 Hz

(3)

1464 Hz

(4)

1332 Hz

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘ θ ’ without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is -

(1)

2 : 3

(2)

2 : 5

(3)

7 : 5

(4)

5 : 7

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is - 6 3 0 –3 6 8 4 2 t(s) F(N)

(1)

20 Ns

(2)

12 Ns

(3)

6 Ns

(4)

24 Ns

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

In the Young's double-silt experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, ( λ being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ /4, will be

(1)

K/4

(2)

K/2

(3)

Zero

(4)

K

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’ ?

(1)

a g ma 2 +

(2)

a g ma +

(3)

a g ma −

(4)

a g ma 2 −

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4m long. When the resistance, R, connected across the given cell, has values of. (i) infinity (ii) 9.5 Ω the 'balancing lengths', on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is

(1)

0.95 Ω

(2)

0.5 Ω

(3)

0.75 Ω

(4)

0.25 Ω

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is – (take γ = 5/3)

(1)

32 P

(2)

P/64

(3)

16 P

(4)

64 P

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then -

(1)

energy = 3VT       + R 1 r 1 is absorbed

(2)

energy = 3VT       − R 1 r 1 is released

(3)

energy is neither released nor absorbed

(4)

energy = 4VT       − R 1 r 1 is released

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is -

(1)

3/2 mv 2

(2)

2 mv 2

(3)

4 mv 2

(4)

mv 2

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be

(1)

2

(2)

6

(3)

10

(4)

3

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 10 24 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ?

(1)

10 –9 m

(2)

10 –6 m

(3)

100 m

(4)

10 –2 m

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 ms –1 and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 ms –1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms –1 ) - (given g = 9.8 ms –2 )

(1)

5.9

(2)

16.3

(3)

110.8

(4)

5

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

Certain quantity of water cools from 70ºC to 60ºC in the first 5 minutes and 60ºC to 54ºC in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is -

(1)

20ºC

(2)

42ºC

(3)

10ºC

(4)

45ºC

Show answer & solution
Answer: D

A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s –2 is -

(1)

50 N

(2)

78.5 N

(3)

157 N

(4)

25 N

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

Steam at 100ºC is passed into 20 g of water at 10ºC. When water acquires a temperature of 80ºC, the mass of water present will be - [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g –1 ºC –1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g –1 ]

(1)

31.5 g

(2)

42.5 g

(3)

22.5 g

(4)

24 g

Show answer & solution
Answer: C

A radio isotope 'X' with a half life 1.4 × 10^9 years decays to 'Y' which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain 'X' and 'Y' in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the rock is :

(1)

92 × 10 9 years

(2)

20 × 10 9 years

(3)

8.40 × 10 9 years

(4)

96 × 10 9 years

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :

(1)

450 V, 15 A

(2)

450 V, 13.5 A

(3)

600 V, 15 A

(4)

300 V, 15 A

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is

(1)

0 eV

(2)

3 eV

(3)

5 eV

(4)

0.65 eV

Show answer & solution
Answer: A

The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius ‘r’) is inversely proportional to -

(1)

r 3

(2)

r 2

(3)

r

(4)

r

Show answer & solution
Answer: B

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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2014 Question Paper, Code Q. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.