Official NTA NEET-UG 2016 question paper, set A_P_W. 180 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
15 MR2/32
13 MR2/32
11 MR2/32
9 MR2/32
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be: NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST Phase-1 (Code:A-P-W) Answers & Solutions Physics www.vedantu.com 2
2μ0Ii 3π
μ0Ii 2π
2μ0IiL 3π
μ0IiL 2π
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
diamagnetic material only
paramagnetic material only
ferromagnetic material only
paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms−1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is : (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms−1) www.vedantu.com 3
765 Hz
800 Hz
838 Hz
885 Hz
A capacitor of 2μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:
0%
20%
75%
80%
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30o when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
sin−1( 1 4)
sin−1( 2 3 )
sin−1( 1 2 )
sin−1( 3 4 )
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are −5.4 ×107J kg−2 and 6.0 ms−2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:
2600 km
1600 km
1400 km
2000 km
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
A charge moving at constant velocity
A stationary charge
A chargeless particle
An accelerating charge
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths 𝑙, are initially at a distance d(d < < 𝑙) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity υ. Then υ varies as a function of the distance 𝑥 between the spheres, as
υ ∝ x 1 2
υ ∝ x
υ ∝ x−1 2
υ ∝ x−1
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1, hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:
√ m1 m2
√ m1+m2 m2
√ m1 m2
√ m1+m2 m1
A refrigerator works between 4oC and 30oC. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
365 W
23.65 W
236.5 W www.vedantu.com 9
2365 W
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
66.7 cm
100 cm
150 cm
200 cm
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
0 A www.vedantu.com 10
10−2 𝐴
10−1 𝐴
10−3 𝐴
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q =at− bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is :
a3R 6b
a3R 3b
a3R 2b
a3R b
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88× 106 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
U1 = 0
U3 = 0
U1 > U2
U2 > U1
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are 𝑙1 and 𝑙2 respectively. If (𝑙2 − 𝑙1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
α1 2𝑙2 = α2 2𝑙1
α1𝑙2 2 = α2𝑙1 2
α1 2𝑙2 = α2 2𝑙1
α1𝑙1 = α2𝑙2
A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:
4, 3.84
69, 3.84
4, 4
4, 3.69
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D =10 d?
I0
I0 4
3 4I0
I0 2
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to tum about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s−2. Its net acceleration in ms−2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
8.0
7.0
6.0
0
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is: SS www.vedantu.com 14
1 c ( E 2m) 1 2
( E 2m) 1 2
c(2mE) 1 2
1 c ( 2m E ) 1 2 (c being velocity of light)
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
Disk
Sphere
Both reach at the same time
Depends on their masses
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The angle of prism is 60o. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:
45o; 1 √2
30o; √2
45o;√2
30o; 1 √2
When an α-particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as:
1 m
1 √m
1 m2
𝑚
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 ×10−4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
0.1 m/s2
0.15 m/s2
0.18 m/ s2
0.2m s2
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms−1 at 27oC and 1.0 ×105 Nm−2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127oC and 0.05× 105 Nm−2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms−1 is: www.vedantu.com 17
100√2
400 √3
100√2 3
100 3
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. the current is uniformly distributed over its cross- section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B′, at radial distances a 2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
1 4
1 2
1
4
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cosωt x ̂ +sinωt y ̂. Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r .
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r .
Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop? www.vedantu.com 19
√gR
√2gR
√3gR
√5gR
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V 4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
4λ
5λ
5 2λ
3λ
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is :
5 : 1
5 : 4
3 : 4
3 : 2
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
37.3 cm
46.0 cm
50.0 cm
54.0 cm
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ(n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
{1 +(n + 1)p}ρ
{2 +(n + 1)p}ρ
{2 +(n − 1)p}ρ
{1 +(n − 1)p}ρ
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:
A = 0,B = 1,C = 0
A = 1,B = 0,C = 0
A = 1,B = 1,C = 0
A = 1,B = 0,C = 1
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 15 J/kg and g =10 N/kg] www.vedantu.com 23
34 km
544 km
136 km
68 km
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (υe) to the escape velocity at a planet (υp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
1 ∶ 2
1 ∶ 2√2
1 ∶ 4
1 ∶√2
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
0𝑜
90𝑜
45𝑜
180𝑜
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m−1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
0.025× 104 m−1
0.5 ×107 m−1
0.25× 107 m−1
5 ×107 m−1
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F⃗ = (2t î + 3t2 ĵ)N, where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
(2t2 + 3t3)W
(2t2 + 4t4)W
(2t3 + 3t4)W
(2t3 + 3t5)W
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V =10si n340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is :
0.51 W
0.67 W
0.76 W
0.89 W
If the velocity of a particle is υ =At+ Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
3 2A +4B
3A+ 7B
3 2 A + 7 3 B
A 2 + B 3
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 ×10−3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
4 H
3 H
2 H
1 H
A small signal voltage V(t)= V0 sinωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:
Current I(t), legs voltage V(t) by 90o
Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180o
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror] Column 1 Column 2 (A) m= −2 (a) Convex mirror (B) m= −1 2 (b) Concave mirror (C) m= +2 (c) Real image (D) m= +1 2 (d) Virtual image www.vedantu.com 27
A → b and c; B→ b and c; C→ b and d; D→ a and d
A → a and c; B→ a and d; d→ a and b; D→ c and d
A → a and d; B→ b and c; C→ b and d; D→ b and c
A → c and d; B→ b and d; C→ b and c; D→ a and d
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
√gR2 μs+tanθ 1−μs tanθ
√gR μs+tanθ 1−μs tanθ
√ g R μs+tanθ 1−μstanθ
√ g R2 μs+tanθ 1−μstanθ
Consider the molecules CH4,NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90o.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3.
In the reaction X and Y are:
X = 1 – Butyne ; Y = 3 – Hexyne
X = 2 – Butyne ; Y = 3 – Hexyne
X = 2 – Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne
X = 1 – Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is:
HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l−1s−1 at 10 second and 0.03 mol l−1s−1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
24.1 s
34.1 s
44.1 s
54.1 s
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive
∆G,∆H and ∆S all are negative
∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is positive
∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it? www.vedantu.com 31
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F− (increasing ionic size)
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
I <Br< Cl< F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
Li< Na< K <Rb (increasing metallic radius)
Which of the following statements is false?
Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP.
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting.
Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.
Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants.
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution.
Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha carbon, is:
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 ×10−13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical.
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3.
The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
α-glycosidic bond
β- glycosidic bond
Peptide bond
Dative bond
Nutural rubber has:
All cis – configuration
All trans – configuration
Alternate cis – and trans – configuration www.vedantu.com 33
Random cis – and trans – configuration
Match items of column I with the items of column II and assign the correct code:
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cyanide process | (i) Ultrapure Ge |
| (b) Froth floatation process | (ii) Dressing of ZnS |
| (c) Electrolytic reduction | (iii) Extraction of Al |
| (d) Zone refining | (iv) Extraction of Au (v) Purification of Ni |
(a) ( b) ( c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (d) (i)
(a) ( b) ( c) (ii) (iii) (i) (d) (v)
(a) (b) ( c) (i) ( ii) (iii) (d) (iv)
(a) ( b) ( c) (iii) (iv) (v) (d) (i)
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
The solution turns blue.
The solution is decolourized.
SO2 is reduced.
Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic NO. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
[Xe]4f76s2 ,[Xe]4f86s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
[Xe]4f65d16s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f96s2
[Xe]4f65d16s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
[Xe]4f76s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f96s2
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
Principal quantum number
Magnetic quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Spin quantum number
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
Cu(NO3)2,NO and NO2
Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
Acetone
Ozone
MnO2
Aluminium isopropoxide
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
∆H < 0 and ∆S = 0
∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m−3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol−1. Calculated the edge len gth of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02× 1023 mol−1)
154 pm
352 pm
527 pm
264 pm
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
Which of the following is an analgesic?
Novalgin
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Chloromycetin
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escape in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
1 8
1 4
3 8
1 2
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
Faster
Slower
Unchanged
Doubled
Predict the correct order among the following:
Lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
Lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
Bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
Lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is:
Ca(CN)2
CaCN
CaCN3
Ca2CN
Consider the following liquid – vapour equilibrium. Liquid ⇌ Vapour Which of the following relations is correct?
dlnG dT2 = ∆Hυ RT2
dlnP dT = −∆Hυ RT
dlnP dT2 = −∆Hυ T2
dlnP dT = ∆Hυ RT2
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. www.vedantu.com 38
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) XeF6 | (i) Distorted octahedral |
| (b) XeO3 | (ii) Square planar |
| (c) XeOF4 | (iii) Pyramidal |
| (d) XeF4 | (iv) Square pyramidal |
(a) ( b) ( c) (i) ( iii) (iv) (d) (ii)
(a) (b) ( c) (i) ( ii) (iv) (d) (iii)
(a) ( b) ( c) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) (ii)
(a) ( b) (c) (iv) ( i) ( ii) (d) (iii)
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å).
Ni(CO)4
[Co(CO)4]⊖
[Fe(CO)4]2 −
[Mn(CO)6]+
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2 – electrode zero in pure water at 298 k is:
10−14 atm
10−12 atm
10−10 atm
10−4 atm
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
Entropy
Internal energy
Enthalpy
Activation energy
The ionic radii of 𝐴+ and 𝐵− ions are 0.98 × 10−10𝑚 and 1.81× 10−10 𝑚. The coordination number of each ion in AB is
6
4
8
2
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
Both are triprotic acids
Both are diprotic acids
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
Liquid in gas
Gas in liquid
Solid in gas www.vedantu.com 40
Gas in gas
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25𝑜𝐶. (Given vapour pressure data at 25𝑜𝐶, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
The reaction Can be classified as:
Williamson ether synthesis reaction
Alcohol formation reaction
Dehydration reaction
Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Schiff base
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Aromatic acid
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active? www.vedantu.com 42
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
For the following reactions: a. 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻2𝐶𝐻2𝐵𝑟 + 𝐾𝑂𝐻 → 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐾𝐵𝑟 + 𝐻2𝑂 b. www.vedantu.com 43 c. Which of the following statements is correct?
a and b are elimination reactions and c is addition reaction.
a is elimination, b is substitution and c is addition reaction.
a is elimination, b and c are substitution reactions.
a is substitution, b and c are addition reactions.
At 100𝑜𝐶 the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If 𝐾𝑏 = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
101𝑜𝐶
100𝑜𝐶
102𝑜𝐶
103𝑜𝐶
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose.
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose.
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.
The sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.
The correct statement regarding the basicity of aryl amines is:
Aryl amines are generally less basic than alkyl amines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines because of aryl group.
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines, because the nitrogen atom in aryl amines is sp- hybridized.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
Maltose
Lactose
Glucose
Sucrose
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C ≡ C⊖ is present in which of the following orbitals? www.vedantu.com 46
2p
sp3
sp2
sp
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
Hydrogen bonds
Phosphodiester bond
Covalent bond
Disulphide bridges
The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
Endocarp
Fleshy mesocarp
Free nuclear proembryo
Free nuclear endosperm
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
They lack a protein coat
They are smaller than viruses
They cause infections
Their RNA is of high molecular weight
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?
Chitinous exoskeleton
Metameric segmentation
Parapodia
Jointed appendages
Which of the following most appropriately describes hemophilia?
Recessive gene disorder
X – linked recessive gene disorder
Chromosomal disorder
Dominant gene disorder
Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
Photophosphorylation and non – cyclic electron transport
Two photosystems operating simultaneously
Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
Oxidative phosphorylation
In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?
Boron, zinc, manganese
Iron, copper, molybdenum
Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus www.vedantu.com 49
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
Emphysema
Asthma
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
Ley farming
Contour farming
Strip farming
Shifting agriculture
Mitochondria and chloroplast are: (i) Semi – autonomous organelles (ii) Formed by division of pre – existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery Which one of the following options is correct?
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(ii) is true but (i) is false
(i) is true but (ii) is false
Both (i) and (ii) are false
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? www.vedantu.com 50
It is usually done when a woman is between 14 – 16 weeks pregnant
It is used for prenatal sex determination
It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:
Stroma
Lumen of thylakoids
Inter membrane space
Antennae complex
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
Guanosine and Retinol
Opsin and Retinal
Opsin and Retinol
Guanosine and Retinol
Spindle fibres attach on to:
Telomere of the chromosome
Kinetochore of the chromosome
Centromere of the chromosome
Kinetosome of the chromosome
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
Gangetic shark
River dolphin
Blue whale
Sea – horse
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
Glucose
Galactose
Lactose
Lactose and galactose
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
Parathormone - Calcitonin
Insulin - Glucagon
Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
Relaxin - Inhibin
Microtubules are the constituents of:
Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
Spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
A complex of ribosomes attached to single strand of RNA is known as:
Polysome
Polymer
Polypeptide
Okazaki fragment
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:
The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix
The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs. of release of ovum in uterus
Asthma may be attributed to:
Bacterial infection of the lungs
Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs www.vedantu.com 53
Inflammation of the trachea
Accumulation of fluid in the lung
The avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
ABA
GA3
IAA
Ethylene
The standard petal of papilionaceous corolla is also called:
Carina
Pappus
Vexillum
Corona
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:
Liliaceae
Solanaceae
Fabaceae
Poaceae www.vedantu.com 54
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
Chitin
Peptidoglycan
Cellulose
Hemicellulose
Select the incorrect statement:
FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
LH triggers ovulation in ovary
LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:
Pachytene
Leptotene
Zygotene
Diplotene
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the 𝐹1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf www.vedantu.com 55
3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
Over – exploitation
Alien species invasion
Habitat loss and fragmentation
Co – extinctions
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
Absence of soil organisms
Least genetic diversity
Absence of weeds
Ecological succession
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
Estrogen and progesterone
Estrogen and inhibin
Progesterone only
Progesterone and inhibin
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
Independent replication
Circular structure
Transferable
Single – stranded
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
Schizocoelom as body cavity
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
Exoskeleton composed of N – acetylglucosamine
Metamerically segmented body
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self – cells and non – self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self – cells, then it leads to:
Allergic response
Graft rejection
Auto – immune disease
Active immunity
Column – I Column – II (a) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character (b) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself (c) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully (d) Polygenic inheritance (iv) A single gene influences many characters
(a) (b) (c) (d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
1960s
1970s
1980s
1990s
Pick out the correct statements: (i) Hemophilia is a sex – linked recessive disease (ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder (iv) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(i) and (iv) are correct
(ii) and (iv) are correct
(i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Cyanobacteria are also called blue – green algae
Golden algae are also called desmids www.vedantu.com 59
Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
Anther
Connective
Placenta
Thalamus or petal
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
Hormonal contraceptives Prevent retard⁄ entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
Thermus aquaticus
Thiobacillus ferroxidans
Bacillus subtilis
Pseudomonas putida
Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’:
Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
Flower
Leaf
Stem
R oot
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
Activated pathogens
Harvested antibodies
Gamma globulin
Attenuated pathogens
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
Mitochondria
Chloroplasts
Lysosomes
Nuclei
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:
Spasm
Fatigue
Tetanus
Tonus
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
Pitcher of Nepenthes
Thorns of citrus
Tendrils of cucumber
Flattened structures of Opuntia
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
Xanthophylls www.vedantu.com 62
Chlorophylls
Carotenoids
Anthocyanins
Select the correct statement:
Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
Salvinia, ginkgo and pinus all are gymnosperms
Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Polymerase chain reaction
Zinc finger analysis
Restriction enzymes
DNA – DNA hybridization
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
Tissue Location Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
Tissue Location Areolar tissue Tendons
Tissue Location www.vedantu.com 63 Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Tissue Location Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
𝐶3
𝐶4
CAM
Nitrogen fixer
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
Dorsal fin of a shark
Wing of a moth
Hind limb of rabbit
Flipper of whale
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
www.vedantu.com 64 Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
Viviparous Mammalia
Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
3 – chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
Mutations in proto – oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
Mutations inactivate the cell control
Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
Melatonin and Serotonin
Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
Estrogen and Progesterone
Cortisol and Cortisone
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (i) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (ii) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(i) is correct but (ii) is false
(ii) is correct but (i) is false
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Both (i) and (ii) are false
Reduction in pH of blood will:
Reduce the rate of heart beat
Reduce the blood supply to the brain
Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
Analogous structures are a result of:
Divergent evolution
Convergent evolution
Shared ancestry
Stabilizing selection
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
Hind II
Protease
DNase I www.vedantu.com 66
RNase
The term ecosystem was coined by:
E.P. Odum
A.G. Tansley
E. Haeckel
E. Warming
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Sucrose is a disaccharide
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
Uracil is a pyrimidine
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:
Wind
Insects
Birds
Water
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as 𝑑𝑁 𝑑𝑡⁄ = 𝑟𝑁(1 − 𝑁 𝐾⁄ ):
When 𝑁 𝐾⁄ is exactly one
When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
When 𝑁 𝐾⁄ equals zero www.vedantu.com 67
When death rate is greater than birth rate
Which one of the following statements is not true?
Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
Pollen grains of many species cause severe allegies
Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
Lichens
Liverworts
Mosses
Green algae
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
AUG
UGA
UAA
UAG
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? www.vedantu.com 68
Ossified endoskeleton
Breathing using lungs
Viviparity
Warm blooded nature
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
Biological names can be written in any language
The first words in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
The names are written in Latin and are italicized
When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
Same as that in the aorta
More than that in the carotid
More than that in the pulmonary vein
Less than that in the venae cavae
Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
Plumule
Coleorhiza
Coleoptile
Scutellum
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
Gastrin secreting cells
Parietal cells
Peptic cells
Acidic cells
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
Nitrous oxide
Ozone
Ammonia
Methane
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
Monera
Protista
Fungi
Animalia
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:
Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and 𝐶𝑂2 is different
The above processes happen only during night time
One process occurs during day time, and the other at night www.vedantu.com 70
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
Renal vein
Dorsal aorta
Hepatic vein
Hepatic portal vein
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:
Sporulation
Budding
Somatic hybridization
Apomixis
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe Product Application Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin A Immunosuppressive drug
Microbe Product Application Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol
Microbe Product Application Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel www.vedantu.com 71
Microbe Product Application Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains
In a testcross involving 𝐹1 dihybrid flies, more parental – type offspring were produced than the recombinant – type offspring. This indicates:
The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
It is easier to carry a small body weight.
Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
Spindle fibres
Disappearance of nucleolus
Chromosome movement
Synapsis
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nerctar⁄ robbers.
Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:
Complementary cells
Subsidiary cells
Bulliform cells
Lenticels
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
Semilunar valve
Ileocaecal valve
Pyloric sphincter www.vedantu.com 73
Sphincter of Oddi
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:
Cladodes
Phyllodes
Phylloclades
Scales
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:
Halophiles
Thermoacidophiles
Methanogens
Eubacteria
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:
Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:
Aneuploidy
Polyploidy
Somaclonal variation
Polyteny
A typical fat molecules is made up of:
Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecules
One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2016 Question Paper, Code A_P_W. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.