Official NTA NEET-UG 2016 question paper, set B_Q_X. 178 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
Internal energy
Enthalpy
Activation energy
Entropy
Predict the correct order among the following:
Lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair
Bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
Lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair
Lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair
The correct statement regarding the basicity of aryl amines is:
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines because of aryl group.
Aryl amines are generally more basic than alkyl amines, because the nitrogen atom in aryl amines is sp- hybridized.
Aryl amines are generally less basic than alkyl amines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces:
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
Cu(NO3)2,NO and NO2
Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
For the following reactions: a. 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻2𝐶𝐻2𝐵𝑟 + 𝐾𝑂𝐻 → 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 + 𝐾𝐵𝑟 + 𝐻2𝑂 b. www.vedantu.com 43 c. Which of the following statements is correct?
a is elimination, b is substitution and c is addition reaction.
a is elimination, b and c are substitution reactions.
a is substitution, b and c are addition reactions.
a and b are elimination reactions and c is addition reaction.
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by:
Magnetic quantum number
Azimuthal quantum number
Spin quantum number
Principal quantum number
The reaction Can be classified as:
Alcohol formation reaction
Dehydration reaction
Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
Williamson ether synthesis reaction
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic NO. 64) and Tb (Atomic No. 65) are:
[Xe]4f65d16s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f96s2
[Xe]4f65d16s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
[Xe]4f76s2 ,[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f96s2
[Xe]4f76s2 ,[Xe]4f86s2 and [Xe]4f85d16s2
At 100𝑜𝐶 the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If 𝐾𝑏 = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:
100𝑜𝐶
102𝑜𝐶
103𝑜𝐶
101𝑜𝐶
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.
The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?
∆G,∆H and ∆S all are negative
∆G and ∆H are negative but ∆S is positive
∆G and ∆S are negative but ∆H is positive
∆G is negative but ∆H and ∆S are positive
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridization and shape given in column II and mark the correct option. www.vedantu.com 38
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) XeF6 | (i) Distorted octahedral |
| (b) XeO3 | (ii) Square planar |
| (c) XeOF4 | (iii) Pyramidal |
| (d) XeF4 | (iv) Square pyramidal |
(a) (b) ( c) (i) ( ii) (iv) (d) (iii)
(a) ( b) ( c) (iv) (iii) (i) (d) (ii)
(a) ( b) (c) (iv) ( i) ( ii) (d) (iii)
(a) ( b) ( c) (i) ( iii) (iv) (d) (ii)
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha carbon, is:
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism.
A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:
α-glycosidic bond
Peptide bond
Dative bond
β- glycosidic bond
Match items of column I with the items of column II and assign the correct code:
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Cyanide process | (i) Ultrapure Ge |
| (b) Froth floatation process | (ii) Dressing of ZnS |
| (c) Electrolytic reduction | (iii) Extraction of Al |
| (d) Zone refining | (iv) Extraction of Au (v) Purification of Ni |
(a) ( b) ( c) (ii) (iii) (i) (d) (v)
(a) (b) ( c) (i) ( ii) (iii) (d) (iv)
(a) ( b) ( c) (iii) (iv) (v) (d) (i)
(a) ( b) ( c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (d) (i)
Which of the following is an analgesic?
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Chloromycetin
Novalgin
Which is the correct statement for the given acids?
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.
Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.
Both are triprotic acids
Both are diprotic acids
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C ≡ C⊖ is present in which of the following orbitals? www.vedantu.com 46
sp3
sp2
sp
2p
Consider the molecules CH4,NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false?
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH4.
The H – O – H bond angle in H2O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4 is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH3.
The H – C – H bond angle in CH4, the H – N – H bond angle in NH3, and the H – O – H bond angle in H2O are all greater than 90o.
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution?
The solution is decolourized.
SO2 is reduced.
Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
The solution turns blue.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is:
∆H < 0 and ∆S = 0
∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0
∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0
∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0
Nutural rubber has:
All trans – configuration
Alternate cis – and trans – configuration www.vedantu.com 33
Random cis – and trans – configuration
All cis – configuration
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it? www.vedantu.com 31
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
I <Br< Cl< F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
Li< Na< K <Rb (increasing metallic radius)
Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F− (increasing ionic size)
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?
Ozone
MnO2
Aluminium isopropoxide
Acetone
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is:
CaCN
CaCN3
Ca2CN
Ca(CN)2
Fog is a colloidal solution of:
Gas in liquid
Solid in gas www.vedantu.com 40
Gas in gas
Liquid in gas
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escape in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?
1 4
3 8
1 2
1 8
Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m−3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol−1. Calculated the edge len gth of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (NA = 6.02× 1023 mol−1)
352 pm
527 pm
264 pm
154 pm
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25𝑜𝐶. (Given vapour pressure data at 25𝑜𝐶, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å).
[Co(CO)4]⊖
[Fe(CO)4]2 −
[Mn(CO)6]+
Ni(CO)4
Among the following, the correct order of acidity is:
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
In the reaction X and Y are:
X = 2 – Butyne ; Y = 3 – Hexyne
X = 2 – Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne
X = 1 – Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne
X = 1 – Butyne ; Y = 3 – Hexyne
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 ×10−13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3?
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY3.
The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.
The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY3 will have no effect on their solubilities.
The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical.
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:
Slower
Unchanged
Doubled
Faster
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Aromatic acid
Schiff base
The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2 – electrode zero in pure water at 298 k is:
10−12 atm
10−10 atm
10−4 atm
10−14 atm
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose.
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.
The sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.
The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose.
Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
Lactose
Glucose
Sucrose
Maltose
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in solution.
Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common.
Consider the following liquid – vapour equilibrium. Liquid ⇌ Vapour Which of the following relations is correct?
dlnP dT = −∆Hυ RT
dlnP dT2 = −∆Hυ T2
dlnP dT = ∆Hυ RT2
dlnG dT2 = ∆Hυ RT2
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active? www.vedantu.com 42
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Which of the following statements is false?
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting.
Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart.
Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of plants.
Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP.
The ionic radii of 𝐴+ and 𝐵− ions are 0.98 × 10−10𝑚 and 1.81× 10−10 𝑚. The coordination number of each ion in AB is
4
8
2
6
The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol l−1s−1 at 10 second and 0.03 mol l−1s−1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:
34.1 s
44.1 s
54.1 s
24.1 s
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
Phosphodiester bond
Covalent bond
Disulphide bridges
Hydrogen bonds
The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
Fleshy mesocarp
Free nuclear proembryo
Free nuclear endosperm
Endocarp
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
Circular structure
Transferable
Single – stranded
Independent replication
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
River dolphin
Blue whale
Sea – horse
Gangetic shark
The avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
GA3
IAA
Ethylene
ABA
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ?
Alien species invasion
Habitat loss and fragmentation
Co – extinctions
Over – exploitation
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
Intra uterine devices Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
Hormonal contraceptives Prevent retard⁄ entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
In a testcross involving 𝐹1 dihybrid flies, more parental – type offspring were produced than the recombinant – type offspring. This indicates:
Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome
Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene
The two genes are located on two different chromosomes
A typical fat molecules is made up of:
One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecules
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nerctar⁄ robbers.
Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
Exoskeleton composed of N – acetylglucosamine
Metamerically segmented body
Schizocoelom as body cavity
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:
Anthocyanins
Carotenoids
Xanthophylls www.vedantu.com 62
Chlorophylls
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:
Polyploidy
Somaclonal variation
Polyteny
Aneuploidy
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?
𝐶4
CAM
Nitrogen fixer
𝐶3
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self – cells and non – self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self – cells, then it leads to:
Graft rejection
Auto – immune disease
Active immunity
Allergic response
Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:
Two photosystems operating simultaneously
Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
Oxidative phosphorylation
Photophosphorylation and non – cyclic electron transport
Select the correct statement:
Salvinia, ginkgo and pinus all are gymnosperms
Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
Disappearance of nucleolus
Chromosome movement
Synapsis
Spindle fibres
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:
More than that in the carotid
More than that in the pulmonary vein
Less than that in the venae cavae
Same as that in the aorta
Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
Wing of a moth
Hind limb of rabbit
Dorsal fin of a shark
Flipper of whale
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:
Budding
Somatic hybridization
Apomixis
Sporulation
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:
Asthma
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Emphysema
Spindle fibres attach on to:
Kinetosome of the chromosome
Centromere of the chromosome
Kinetochore of the chromosome
Telomere of the chromosome
In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? www.vedantu.com 50
It is used for prenatal sex determination
It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
It is usually done when a woman is between 14 – 16 weeks pregnant
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:
Phyllodes
Phylloclades
Scales
Cladodes
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:
Lumen of thylakoids
Inter membrane space
Antennae complex
Stroma
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
The first words in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
The names are written in Latin and are italicized
When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
Biological names can be written in any language
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:
Leptotene
Zygotene
Diplotene
Pachytene
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
Harvested antibodies
Gamma globulin
Attenuated pathogens
Activated pathogens
The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
Thiobacillus ferroxidans
Bacillus subtilis
Pseudomonas putida
Thermus aquaticus
Which of the following most appropriately describes hemophilia?
X – linked recessive gene disorder
Chromosomal disorder
Dominant gene disorder
Recessive gene disorder
The standard petal of papilionaceous corolla is also called:
Pappus
Vexillum
Corona
Carina
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?
Leaf
Stem
R oot
Flower
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?
They are smaller than viruses
They cause infections
Their RNA is of high molecular weight
They lack a protein coat
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
Mutations inactivate the cell control
Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
Mutations in proto – oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?
Tissue Location Areolar tissue Tendons
Tissue Location www.vedantu.com 63 Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Tissue Location Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
Tissue Location Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:
Subsidiary cells
Bulliform cells
Lenticels
Complementary cells
Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix
The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs. of release of ovum in uterus
The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
UGA
UAA
UAG
AUG
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:
Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (i) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (ii) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(ii) is correct but (i) is false
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Both (i) and (ii) are false
(i) is correct but (ii) is false
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
Contour farming
Strip farming
Shifting agriculture
Ley farming
Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition
More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
Viviparous Mammalia
Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
3 – chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
www.vedantu.com 64 Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
Estrogen and inhibin
Progesterone only
Progesterone and inhibin
Estrogen and progesterone
Microtubules are the constituents of:
Spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
Mitochondria and chloroplast are: (i) Semi – autonomous organelles (ii) Formed by division of pre – existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery Which one of the following options is correct?
(ii) is true but (i) is false
(i) is true but (ii) is false
Both (i) and (ii) are false
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
Opsin and Retinal
Opsin and Retinol
Guanosine and Retinol
Guanosine and Retinol
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:
Protista
Fungi
Animalia
Monera
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:
Thermoacidophiles
Methanogens
Eubacteria
Halophiles
Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’:
Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:
Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
It is easier to carry a small body weight.
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the 𝐹1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf www.vedantu.com 55
3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf
3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall
1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:
Ozone
Ammonia
Methane
Nitrous oxide
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
Least genetic diversity
Absence of weeds
Ecological succession
Absence of soil organisms
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:
Solanaceae
Fabaceae
Poaceae www.vedantu.com 54
Liliaceae
In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?
Iron, copper, molybdenum
Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus www.vedantu.com 49
Boron, zinc, manganese
Reduction in pH of blood will:
Reduce the blood supply to the brain
Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
Reduce the rate of heart beat
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:
Fatigue
Tetanus
Tonus
Spasm
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Golden algae are also called desmids www.vedantu.com 59
Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Cyanobacteria are also called blue – green algae
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
Protease
DNase I www.vedantu.com 66
RNase
Hind II
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
Liverworts
Mosses
Green algae
Lichens
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and 𝐶𝑂2 is different
The above processes happen only during night time
One process occurs during day time, and the other at night www.vedantu.com 70
Both processes cannot happen simultaneously
Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
Coleorhiza
Coleoptile
Scutellum
Plumule
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
Ileocaecal valve
Pyloric sphincter www.vedantu.com 73
Sphincter of Oddi
Semilunar valve
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
Parietal cells
Peptic cells
Acidic cells
Gastrin secreting cells
In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
Dorsal aorta
Hepatic vein
Hepatic portal vein
Renal vein
The term ecosystem was coined by:
A.G. Tansley
E. Haeckel
E. Warming
E.P. Odum
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
Galactose
Lactose
Lactose and galactose
Glucose
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbe Product Application Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol
Microbe Product Application Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel www.vedantu.com 71
Microbe Product Application Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains
Microbe Product Application Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin A Immunosuppressive drug
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as 𝑑𝑁 𝑑𝑡⁄ = 𝑟𝑁(1 − 𝑁 𝐾⁄ ):
When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
When 𝑁 𝐾⁄ equals zero www.vedantu.com 67
When death rate is greater than birth rate
When 𝑁 𝐾⁄ is exactly one
Which one of the following statements is not true?
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
Pollen grains of many species cause severe allegies
Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:
Insects
Birds
Water
Wind
Which of the following is not a stem modification?
Thorns of citrus
Tendrils of cucumber
Flattened structures of Opuntia
Pitcher of Nepenthes
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
Chloroplasts
Lysosomes
Nuclei
Mitochondria
Analogous structures are a result of:
Convergent evolution
Shared ancestry
Stabilizing selection
Divergent evolution
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
Uracil is a pyrimidine
Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
Sucrose is a disaccharide
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
Connective
Placenta
Thalamus or petal
Anther
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Zinc finger analysis
Restriction enzymes
DNA – DNA hybridization
Polymerase chain reaction
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? www.vedantu.com 68
Breathing using lungs
Viviparity
Warm blooded nature
Ossified endoskeleton
Select the incorrect statement:
LH triggers ovulation in ovary
LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
Estrogen and Progesterone
Cortisol and Cortisone
Melatonin and Serotonin
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
1970s
1980s
1990s
1960s
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
Peptidoglycan
Cellulose
Hemicellulose
Chitin
A complex of ribosomes attached to single strand of RNA is known as:
Polymer
Polypeptide
Okazaki fragment
Polysome
Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?
Metameric segmentation
Parapodia
Jointed appendages
Chitinous exoskeleton
Asthma may be attributed to:
Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs www.vedantu.com 53
Inflammation of the trachea
Accumulation of fluid in the lung
Bacterial infection of the lungs
Pick out the correct statements: (i) Hemophilia is a sex – linked recessive disease (ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder (iv) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(ii) and (iv) are correct
(i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(i) and (iv) are correct
A capacitor of 2μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:
20%
75%
80%
0%
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:
A = 1,B = 0,C = 0
A = 1,B = 1,C = 0
A = 1,B = 0,C = 1
A = 0,B = 1,C = 0
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is :
5 : 4
3 : 4
3 : 2
5 : 1
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V 4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:
5λ
5 2λ
3λ
4λ
Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ(n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
{2 +(n + 1)p}ρ
{2 +(n − 1)p}ρ
{1 +(n + 1)p}ρ
{1 +(n − 1)p}ρ
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
A stationary charge
A chargeless particle
An accelerating charge
A charge moving at constant velocity
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q =at− bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is :
a3R 3b
a3R 2b
a3R b
a3R 6b
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are −5.4 ×107J kg−2 and 6.0 ms−2 respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:
1600 km
1400 km
2000 km
2600 km
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are 𝑙1 and 𝑙2 respectively. If (𝑙2 − 𝑙1) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
α1𝑙2 2 = α2𝑙1 2
α1 2𝑙2 = α2 2𝑙1
α1𝑙1 = α2𝑙2
α1 2𝑙2 = α2 2𝑙1
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D =10 d?
I0 4
3 4I0
I0 2
I0
Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m−1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
0.5 ×107 m−1
0.25× 107 m−1
5 ×107 m−1
0.025× 104 m−1
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (υe) to the escape velocity at a planet (υp) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
1 ∶ 2√2
1 ∶ 4
1 ∶ 2
1 ∶√2
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 ×10−3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
3 H
2 H
1 H
4 H
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
√gR μs+tanθ 1−μs tanθ
√ g R μs+tanθ 1−μstanθ
√ g R2 μs+tanθ 1−μstanθ
√gR2 μs+tanθ 1−μs tanθ
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:
paramagnetic material only
ferromagnetic material only
paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
diamagnetic material only
A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms−1. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is : (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms−1) www.vedantu.com 3
800 Hz
838 Hz
885 Hz
765 Hz
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F⃗ = (2t î + 3t2 ĵ)N, where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
(2t2 + 4t4)W
(2t3 + 3t4)W
(2t3 + 3t5)W
(2t2 + 3t3)W
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
13 MR2/32
11 MR2/32
9 MR2/32
15 MR2/32
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30o when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
sin−1( 2 3 )
sin−1( 1 2 )
sin−1( 3 4 )
sin−1( 1 4)
A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be: NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST Phase-1 (Code:A-P-W) Answers & Solutions Physics www.vedantu.com 2
μ0IiL 2π
2μ0IiL 3π
μ0Ii 2π
2μ0Ii 3π
A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88× 106 nmK. Which of the following is correct?
U3 = 0
U1 > U2
U2 > U1
U1 = 0
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
100 cm
150 cm
200 cm
66.7 cm
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s velocity of 200 ms−1 at 27oC and 1.0 ×105 Nm−2 pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127oC and 0.05× 105 Nm−2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms−1 is: www.vedantu.com 17
400 √3
100√2 3
100 3
100√2
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:
10−2 𝐴
10−1 𝐴
10−3 𝐴
0 A www.vedantu.com 10
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
90𝑜
45𝑜
180𝑜
0𝑜
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance:
46.0 cm
50.0 cm
54.0 cm
37.3 cm
A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:
69, 3.84
4, 4
4, 3.69
4, 3.84
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. the current is uniformly distributed over its cross- section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B′, at radial distances a 2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
1 2
1
4
1 4
Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror] Column 1 Column 2 (A) m= −2 (a) Convex mirror (B) m= −1 2 (b) Concave mirror (C) m= +2 (c) Real image (D) m= +1 2 (d) Virtual image www.vedantu.com 27
A → a and c; B→ a and d; d→ a and b; D→ c and d
A → a and d; B→ b and c; C→ b and d; D→ b and c
A → c and d; B→ b and d; C→ b and c; D→ a and d
A → b and c; B→ b and c; C→ b and d; D→ a and d
If the velocity of a particle is υ =At+ Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is:
3A+ 7B
3 2 A + 7 3 B
A 2 + B 3
3 2A +4B
A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
Sphere
Both reach at the same time
Depends on their masses
Disk
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths 𝑙, are initially at a distance d(d < < 𝑙) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity υ. Then υ varies as a function of the distance 𝑥 between the spheres, as
υ ∝ x
υ ∝ x 1 2
υ ∝ x−1
υ ∝ x−1 2
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cosωt x ̂ +sinωt y ̂. Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r .
Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r .
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 15 J/kg and g =10 N/kg] www.vedantu.com 23
544 km
136 km
68 km
34 km
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to tum about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s−2. Its net acceleration in ms−2 at the end of 2.0 s is approximately:
7.0
6.0
0
8.0
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop? www.vedantu.com 19
√2gR
√3gR
√5gR
√gR
A small signal voltage V(t)= V0 sinωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:
Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180o
Current I(t), legs voltage V(t) by 90o
A uniform rope of length L and mass m1, hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:
√ m1+m2 m2
√ m1 m2
√ m1+m2 m1
√ m1 m2
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V =10si n340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is :
0.67 W
0.76 W
0.89 W
0.51 W
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is: SS www.vedantu.com 14
1 c ( 2m E ) 1 2 (c being velocity of light)
1 c ( E 2m) 1 2
c(2mE) 1 2
( E 2m) 1 2
When an α-particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as:
1 m
1 m2
𝑚
1 √m
A refrigerator works between 4oC and 30oC. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 Joules)
23.65 W
236.5 W www.vedantu.com 9
2365 W
365 W
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 ×10−4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
0.15 m/s2
0.18 m/ s2
0.2m s2
0.1 m/s2
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The angle of prism is 60o. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:
30o; √2
45o;√2
30o; 1 √2
45o; 1 √2
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2016 Question Paper, Code B_Q_X. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.