Official NTA NEET-UG 2022 question paper, set R3. 199 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x -axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
1: 3
3 :1
1 : 1
1 : 2
The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength ( λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
Zero weber
2 weber
0.5 weber
1 weber
In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
120 Hz
Zero
30 Hz
60 Hz
The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
180°
0°
45°
90°
When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εr and relative permeability µr, the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)
rr cv = εµ
v = c
r r v µ= ε
r r v ε= µ
A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
32 v
v
2v
22 v
The dimensions [MLT–2A–2] belong to the
Electric permittivity
Magnetic flux
Self inductance
Magnetic permeability
Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is
5 m
10 m3
20 m3
10 m
A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3 , at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be
120°
30°
60°
90°
A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is
D
A
B
C
As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
1 : 4 : 9 : 16
1 : 3 : 5 : 7
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I (Electromagnetic waves) | List-II (Wavelength) |
| (a) AM radio waves | (i) 10–10 m |
| (b) Microwaves | (ii) 102 m |
| (c) Infrared radiations | (iii) 10–2 m |
| (d) X-rays | (iv) 10–4 m |
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is
6.28 × 10–4 T
6.28 × 10–2 T
12.56 × 10–2 T
12.56 × 10–4 T
The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
1: 2
2 : 1
2:1
4 : 1
If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
Decreases
Increases
Remains the same
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is movin g up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms–1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 m s–2)
23500
23000
20000
34500
Let T1 and T 2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is
9 : 4
1 : 4
4 : 1
4 : 9
An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
4
1
2
3
Given below are two statements Statement I : Biot -Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II : Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the f ormer being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is
1 × 105 J
36 × 107 J
36 × 104 J
36 × 105 J
In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is
12
6
8
9
A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
180 N/kg
0.05 N/kg
50 N/kg
20 N/kg
In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is 22 11 Na +→ + +νXe
22 12 Mg
23 11 Na
23 10 Ne
22 10 Ne
The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is
104π
2π
4π
12π
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is
Infinity
+2 D
+20 D
+5 D
When two monochromatic lights of frequency, ν and 2 ν are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes 2 sV and Vs respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is
3 2 ν
2ν
3ν
2 3 ν
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in
Both circuits (a) and (c)
Circuit (a) only
Circuit (b) only
Circuit (c) only
Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
4 : 1
1 : 2
2 : 1
1 : 4
If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is
1: 2
1 : 1
2:1
1 : 2
The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to
1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
The rms value of the ac source
2 times the rms value of the ac source
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius 210 m − π has electrical resistance of 10 Ω . The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is
105 A/m2
104 A/m2
106 A/m2
10–5 A/m2
Plane angle and solid angle have
Both units and dimensions
Units but no dimensions
Dimensions but no units
No units and no dimensions
A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q
Do not play any significant role
Should be approximately equal to 2X
Should be approximately equal and are small
Should be very large and unequal
A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is
25 : 16
1 : 1
4 : 5
5 : 4
A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be
10 ms–1
Zero
15 3 ms −
5 ms–1
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Gravitational constant (G) | (i) [L²T⁻²] |
| (b) Gravitational potential energy | (ii) [M⁻¹L³T⁻²] |
| (c) Gravitational potential | (iii) [LT⁻²] |
| (d) Gravitational intensity | (iv) [ML²T⁻²] |
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is
tan–1 (0.750)
sin–1 (0.500)
sin–1 (0.750)
tan–1 (0.500)
A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure ( a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
5 × 10–6 J
5 × 10–6 J
25 × 10–6 J
25 × 10–6 J
A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s –1. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10 –5 T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
2 A
0.25 A
5 A
1 A
Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R >> L) varies as:
6 1 R
2 1 R
3 1 R
4 1 R
The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is
14 × 102
138 × 101
1382
1382.5
Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:
8
11
9
10
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A) is false but (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross -section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.
A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1 r dependence for the outside region.
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is
5.6 m3
5.6 × 106 m3
5.6 × 103 m3
5.6 × 10–3 m3
A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 Fµ , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is 0ν and the frequency of the ac source is ν , then
0 100100 Hz; Hzν= ν = π
0 50 Hzν =ν=
0 50 Hzν =ν= π
0 50 Hz, 50 Hzν = ν=π
The truth table for the given logic circuit is
000 011 100 111 ABC
000 011 101 110 ABC
001 010 100 111 ABC
001 010 101 110 ABC
At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu 2+ / Cu, Zn 2+ / Zn, Fe 2+ / Fe and Ag + / Ag are 0.34 V, –0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair - lone pair’ electron repulsions?
XeF2
CIF3
IF5
SF4
The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
Enzymes are polysaccharides.
The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction. The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t ½)
zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t ½ and x = concentration)
zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = conce ntration)
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
Given below are two statements Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
The IUPAC name of the complex- [Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is:
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Drug class) | List-II (Drug molecule) |
| (a) Antacids | (i) Salvarsan |
| (b) Antihistamines | (ii) Morphine |
| (c) Analgesics | (iii) Cimetidine |
| (d) Antimicrobials | (iv) Seldane |
(a) - (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(a) - (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) - (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Given below are half cell reactions: − + − ++ + → + 2 42MnO 8H 5e Mn 4H O , +− =−2 4 º Mn /MnOE 1.510 V +−+ + →22 1O 2H 2e H O2 , =+22 º O /H OE 1.223 V Will the permanganate ion, – 4MnO liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
No, because ° =−cellE 2.733 V
Yes, because ° =+cellE 0.287 V
No, because ° =cellE – 0.287 V
Yes, because ° =+cellE 2.733 V
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Products formed) | List-II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with) |
| (a) Cyanohydrin | (i) HCN |
| (b) Acetal | (iii) alcohol |
| (c) Schiff's base | (ii) RNH2 |
| (d) Oxime | (i) NH2OH |
(a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
+ 3HOdry 2 etherRMgX+CO Y RCOOH⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ → What is Y in the above reaction?
(RCOO)2Mg
RCOO–Mg+X
R3CO–Mg+X
RCOO–X+
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and −22xyd and 2zd are similar to each other.
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4 d orbitals.
All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Given below are two statements Statement I The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order – H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te Statement II The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
ununoctium
ununennium
unnilennium
unununnium
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Li | (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide |
| (b) Na | (ii) electrochemical cells |
| (c) KOH | (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors |
| (d) Cs | (iv) photoelectric cell |
(a) - (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(a) - (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) - (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
2O+ ion is diamagnetic
The bond orders of 2 2 2O , O , O+− and 2 2O − are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate π molecular orbitals
2H+ ion has one electron
Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
, HCl, Heating
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl
, HCl
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Hydrides) | List-II (Nature) |
| (a) MgH₂ | (i) Electron precise |
| (b) GeH₄ | (ii) Electron deficient |
| (c) B₂H₆ | (iii) Electron rich |
| (d) HF | (iv) Ionic |
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
Given below are two statements Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+ Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture
i i ip = p °χ , where χi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture pi ° = pressure of ith gas in pure state
p = p1 + p2 + p3
1 2 3 RT RT RTp = n + n + nVVV
pi = χip, where pi = partial pressure of ith gas χi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers
The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following
Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
Thermosetting polymers are reusable
Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
Fibers possess high tensile strength
Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively
The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
57
5.57
57
57
What mass of 95% pure CaCO 3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction? CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
9.50 g
25 g
32 g
65 g
Choose the correct statement:
Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions. Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
high basic character
small size
high exchange enthalpy
high electronegativity
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2. Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from th e options given below:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
1000 g of solvent
500 mL of solvent
500 g of solvent
100 mL of solvent
Given below are two statements Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent. Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Ores) | List-II (Composition) |
| (a) Haematite | (i) Fe₂O₃ |
| (b) Magnetite | (ii) Fe₃O₄ |
| (c) Calamine | (iii) ZnCO₃ |
| (d) Kaolinite | (iv) [Al₂(OH)₄Si₂O₅] |
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
233O (g) 2O (g) for the above reaction at 298 K, K C is found to be 3.0 × 10 –59. If the concentration of O 2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O3 in M is
2 × 1021
38 × 10–32
9 × 10–63
4 × 1031
For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is
0.2303
3818
0.9212
0.4606
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol
1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li 2+ ion?
158.7 Å
158.7 pm
15.87 pm
587 pm
Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2Ni s 2Ag 0.001M Ni 0.001M 2Ag s+++ → + cell 2.303 RTGiven that E 10.5 V, 0.059 at 298 KF °⎛⎞ ==⎜⎟⎝⎠
05 V
0385 V
385 V
0.9615 V
A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27ºC. (Assume O 2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1)
9
5
498.6
49.8
The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ and (C) [Ni(en)3]2+ is
(B) > (A) > (C)
(A) > (B) > (C)
(C) > (B) > (A)
(C) > (A) > (B)
Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2 -pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
+6 to +5
+7 to +4
+6 to +4
+7 to +3
The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a), (c), (d) only
(a), (d) only
(a), (b), (d) only
(b), (c), (d) only
Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10 –8 cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm–3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
65 u
63.1 u
31.55 u
60 u
The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is
Pent-2-ene
3-Methylbut-1-ene
2-Methylbut-1-ene
2-Methylbut-2-ene
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to : (a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels. (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem. (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem. (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem. (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) and (d) Only
(a) and (b) Only
(c) and (d) Only
(d) and (e) Only
Identify the correct set of statements : (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(b) and (c) Only
(a) and (d) Only
(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
It might lead to extinction of a species
Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
Breakdown of proton gradient
Breakdown of electron gradient
Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :
The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :
Translation
Genetic mapping
DNA finger printing
Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements : (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a), (c), (e) Only
(b), (d), (e) Only
(a), (c), (d) Only
(b), (e) Only
What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
Less than 7%
Approximately 15%
More than 18%
About 10%
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
Phaeophyceae only
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
Rhodophyceae only
Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :
Cytokinin
ABA
Gibberellin
Ethylene
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Volvox – Starch
Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin
Ulothrix – Mannitol
Porphyra – Floridian Starch
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
“Girdling Experiment” was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
osmosis is observed
water is transported
food is transported
for both water and food transportation
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :
Terminalization
Synaptonemal complex
Bivalent
Sites at which crossing over occurs
XO type of sex determination can be found in :
Monkeys
Drosophila
Birds
Grasshoppers
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
Natality
Population explosion
Competition
Biodiversity loss
Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :
Glucosamine
Cutin
Cellulose
Chitin
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
Solanum nigrum
Colchicum autumnale
Pisum sativum
Allium cepa
Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
Maize
Cotton
Coriander
Buttercup
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
Beijerinckia
Rhizobium
Frankia
Rhodospirillum
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :
Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Manganese | (i) Activates the enzyme catalase |
| (b) Magnesium | (ii) Required for pollen germination |
| (c) Boron | (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration |
| (d) Iron | (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis |
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii
Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?
Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement
Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells
The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
Read the following statements about the vascular bundles : (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii. (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b) and (d) Only
(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b), (c) and (d) Only
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :
Catalytic Convertor
STP
Incinerator
Electrostatic Precipitator
The flowers are Zygomorphic in: (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c), (d), (e) Only
(a), (b), (c) Only
(b), (c) Only
(d), (e) Only
The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
speed up the malting process
promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface
help overcome apical dominance
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
Eight
Four
Six
Two
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
Cryopreservation
In vitro fertilization
National Parks
Micropropagation
Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
Rain fall and storms
Burning of fossil fuels
Volcanic activity
Weathering of rocks
In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?
5′GTATTC3′; 3′CATAAG5′
5′GATACT3′; 3′CTATGA5′
5′GAATTC3′; 3′CTTAAG5′
5′CTCAGT3′; 3′GAGTCA5′
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Metacentric chromosome | (i) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes |
| (b) Acrocentric chromosome | (ii) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arm |
| (c) Submetacentric chromosome | (iii) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm |
| (d) Telocentric chromosome | (iv) Centromere at the terminal end |
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :
Bioinformatics
Sequence annotation
Gene mapping
Expressed sequence tags
While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and (–) for another specifies involved in the interaction ?
Competition
Predation
Amensalim
Commensalism
Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?
Thalessemia
Sickle cell anaemia
Myotonic dystrophy
Haemophilia
Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :
not affect the water potential at all
raise its water potential
lower its water potential
make its water potential zero
Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?
D → Seed
A → Mesocarp
B → Endocarp
C → Thalamus
The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood. (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b) and (d) Only
Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?
Gene sequencing
Polymerase Chain Reaction
Gene Silencing
Autoradiography
What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C 4 plants?
To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway
To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements: (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a), (b) and (d) only
(a), (b) and (c) only
(a), (d) and (e) only
(c), (d) and (e) only
Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits: List-I List-II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Spirogyra | (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte |
| (b) Fern | (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte |
| (c) Funaria | (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus |
| (d) Cycas | (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte |
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?
It cannot be adulterated like diesel
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low
It is cheaper than diesel
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
Arthritis – Inflammed joints
Tetany – High Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.
Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
Inhaled air is humidified
Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
zero
0.1
10
0
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
Smooth muscle
Intercalated discs
Cartilage
Areolar tissue
Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to
Random change
Stabilising change
Directional change
Disruptive change
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis -II
Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
SER is devoid of ribosomes
In prokaryotes only RER are present
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase
Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes
Chromosomes decondense at telophase
Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
Copper releasing IUD
Cervical barrier
Vault barrier
Non-Medicated IUD
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
Pavo
Ornithorhynchus
Salamandra
Hippocampus
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :
Bio-accumulation
Bio-magnification
Bio-remediation
Bio-fortification
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
)A ( is not correct but ) R ( is correct
Both ) A ( and ) R (are correct and ) R ( is the correct explanation of ) A(
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
)A ( is correct but ) R ( is not correct
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :
Buds
Zoospores
Conidia
Gemmules
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?
C12H24O11
C12H20O10
C12H24O12
C12H22O11
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both tatement IS and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and IStatement I are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
6. 6× bp 106
3× bp 109
6. × 610bp 9
3× bp 106
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b), (c) and (e) only
(c) and (e) only
(b) and (c) only
(b), (d) and (e) only
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
Decomposition
Catabolism
Fragmentation
Humification
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :
Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stag es
ntLymphocytes from patie 's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
Digestion of disaccharides
Control bacterial population in mouth
Digestion of complex carbohydrates
Lubrication of oral cavity
Tegmina in cockroach, arises from
Prothorax and Mesothorax
Prothorax
Mesothorax
Metathorax
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
Neuroglia
Blood
Adipose tissue
Cartilage
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
In-situ conservation refers to:
Conserve only extinct species
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
Conserve only high-risk species
Conserve only endangered species
In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
Only z gene will get transcribed
z, y, a genes will be transcribed
z ,y ,a genes will not be translated
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :
Streptococcus cerevisiae
Trichoderma polysporum
Clostridium butylicum
Aspergillus niger
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both ) A ( and ) R ( are correct and ) R ( is the correct explanation of ) A(
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
)A ( is correct but ) R ( is not correct
Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ________ ml of O2 to the tissues.
10 ml
2 ml
5 ml
4 ml
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?
Adult
Puberty
Embryonic development stage
Birth
In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
Corvus ,Columba ,Chameleon
Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
Catla ,Columba ,Crocodilus
Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Diaphragms | (i) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms |
| (b) Contraceptive Pills | (ii) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation |
| (c) Intra Uterine Devices | (iii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus |
| (d) Lactational Amenorrhea | (iv) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition |
)a (- ) iii(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iv(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) i(, )c (- ) iii(, )d (- ) ii(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) i(, )c (- ) ii(, )d (- ) iii(
)a (- ) ii(, )b (- ) iv(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iii(
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
mory of first encounterAnamnestic response is due to me .
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?
100%
25%
50%
75%
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b) and (c) only
)a (and )c (only
(b), (d) and (e) only
)a (and )e (only
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
Presence of two or more recognition sites
Presence of origin of replication
Presence of a marker gene
Presence of single restriction enzyme site
The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
a, c, b, d
a, d, b, c
d, b, a, c
a, b, c, d
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I (Biological Molecules) | List-II (Biological Functions) |
| (a) Glycogen | (i) Storage product |
| (b) Globulin | (ii) Antibody |
| (c) Steroids | (iii) Hormone |
| (d) Thrombin | (iv) Biocatalyst |
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) iii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) ii(
)a (- ) iii(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) iv(, )d (- ) i(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iii(
)a (- ) ii(, )b (- ) iv(, )c (- ) iii(, )d (- ) i(
Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(c), (d) and (e) only
(a), (b) and (d) only
(b) only
(c) and (d) only
Which of the following statements is not true?
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
Homology indicates common ancestry
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera .
Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
Ten E.coli cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?
80 cells
20 cells
40 cells
60 cells
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Bronchioles | (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue |
| (b) Goblet Cell | (ii) Loose Connective Tissue |
| (c) Tendons | (iii) Glandular Tissue |
| (d) Adipose Tissue | (iv) Ciliated Epithelium |
)a (- ) iii(, )b (- ) iv(, )c (- ) ii(, )d (- ) i(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) iii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) ii(
)a (- ) i(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) iii(, )d (- ) iv(
)a (- ) ii(, )b (- ) i(, )c (- ) iv(, )d (- ) iii(
Given below are two statements: Statements I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2022 Question Paper, Code R3. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.