Official NTA NEET-UG 2022 question paper, set T2. 198 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 >> R2) have equal charges. The potential would be
More on smaller sphere
Equal on both the spheres
Dependent on the material property of the sphere
More on bigger sphere
The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is
4π
12π
104π
2π
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in
Circuit (b) only
Circuit (c) only
Both circuits (a) and (c)
Circuit (a) only
Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is
20 m3
10 m
5 m
10 m3
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is
+20 D
+5 D
Infinity
+2 D
A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is
B
C
D
A
The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
2 : 1
4 : 1
1: 2
2:1
A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
2v
22 v
32 v
v
A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is
12.56 × 10–2 T
12.56 × 10–4 T
6.28 × 10–2 T
6.28 × 10–4 T
Let T1 and T 2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is
4 : 1
4 : 9
9 : 4
1 : 4
A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3 , at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be
60°
90°
120°
30°
If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
Increases
Remains the same
Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
Decreases
Plane angle and solid angle have
Dimensions but no units
No units and no dimensions
Both units and dimensions
Units but no dimensions
When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εr and relative permeability µr, the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)
r r v µ= ε
r r v ε= µ
rr cv = εµ
v = c
Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
2 : 1
1 : 4
4 : 1
1 : 2
The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength ( λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
0.5 weber
1 weber
Zero weber
2 weber
The dimensions [MLT–2A–2] belong to the
Self inductance
Magnetic permeability
Electric permittivity
Magnetic flux
When two monochromatic lights of frequency, ν and 2 ν are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes 2 sV and Vs respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is
3ν
2 3 ν
3 2 ν
2ν
In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
30 Hz
60 Hz
120 Hz
Zero
An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
2
3
4
1
The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x -axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
1 : 1
1 : 2
1: 3
3 :1
In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is
8
9
12
6
The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to
The rms value of the ac source
2 times the rms value of the ac source
1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is
2:1
1: 2
1 : 2
1 : 1
Given below are two statements Statement I : Biot -Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only. Statement II : Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the f ormer being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is
36 × 107 J
36 × 104 J
1 × 105 J
36 × 105 J
A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
50 N/kg
20 N/kg
180 N/kg
0.05 N/kg
In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is 22 11 Na +→ + +νXe
23 10 Ne
22 10 Ne
22 12 Mg
23 11 Na
The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
45°
90°
180°
0°
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius 210 m − π has electrical resistance of 10 Ω . The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is
10–5 A/m2
104 A/m2
106 A/m2
105 A/m2
The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second
1 : 4 : 9 : 16
1 : 3 : 5 : 7
1 : 1 : 1 : 1
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is movin g up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms–1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 m s–2)
20000
34500
23500
23000
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is
5.6 × 10–3 m3
5.6 × 106 m3
5.6 m3
5.6 × 103 m3
The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is
1382
1382.5
14 × 102
138 × 101
A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure ( a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
25 × 10–6 J
25 × 10–6 J
5 × 10–6 J
5 × 10–6 J
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Gravitational constant (G) | (i) [L²T⁻²] |
| (b) Gravitational potential energy | (ii) [M⁻¹L³T⁻²] |
| (c) Gravitational potential | (iii) [LT⁻²] |
| (d) Gravitational intensity | (iv) [ML²T⁻²] |
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:
9
10
8
11
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring. Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be
15 3 ms −
5 ms–1
10 ms–1
Zero
Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is
sin–1 (0.750)
tan–1 (0.500)
tan–1 (0.750)
sin–1 (0.500)
The truth table for the given logic circuit is
001 010 101 110 ABC
000 011 100 111 ABC
001 010 100 111 ABC
000 011 101 110 ABC
A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 Fµ , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is 0ν and the frequency of the ac source is ν , then
0 50 Hzν =ν=
0 50 Hz, 50 Hzν = ν=π
0 100100 Hz; Hzν= ν = π
0 50 Hzν =ν= π
A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q
Should be approximately equal and are small
Should be very large and unequal
Do not play any significant role
Should be approximately equal to 2X
From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross -section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.
A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1 r dependence for the outside region.
A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s –1. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10 –5 T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
5 A
1 A
2 A
0.25 A
Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R >> L) varies as:
2 1 R
3 1 R
4 1 R
6 1 R
A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is
4 : 5
5 : 4
25 : 16
1 : 1
Given below are two statements Statement I: In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+ Statement II: In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
Fibers possess high tensile strength
Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively
Thermosetting polymers are reusable
Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration
Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers
+ 3HOdry 2 etherRMgX+CO Y RCOOH⎯⎯⎯ → ⎯⎯⎯ → What is Y in the above reaction?
R3CO–Mg+X
RCOO–X+
(RCOO)2Mg
RCOO–Mg+X
In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
500 g of solvent
100 mL of solvent
1000 g of solvent
500 mL of solvent
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Hydrides) | List-II (Nature) |
| (a) MgH₂ | (i) Electron precise |
| (b) GeH₄ | (ii) Electron deficient |
| (c) B₂H₆ | (iii) Electron rich |
| (d) HF | (iv) Ionic |
(a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole interactions. Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Products formed) | List-II (Reaction of carbonyl compound with) |
| (a) Cyanohydrin | (i) HCN |
| (b) Acetal | (iii) alcohol |
| (c) Schiff's base | (ii) RNH2 |
| (d) Oxime | (i) NH2OH |
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture
1 2 3 RT RT RTp = n + n + nVVV
pi = χip, where pi = partial pressure of ith gas χi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
i i ip = p °χ , where χi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture pi ° = pressure of ith gas in pure state
p = p1 + p2 + p3
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Drug class) | List-II (Drug molecule) |
| (a) Antacids | (i) Salvarsan |
| (b) Antihistamines | (ii) Morphine |
| (c) Analgesics | (iii) Cimetidine |
| (d) Antimicrobials | (iv) Seldane |
(a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) - (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(a) - (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(a) - (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
Given below are two statements Statement I The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order – H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te Statement II The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
The IUPAC name of the complex- [Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is:
diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl
, HCl
, HCl, Heating
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2. Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
unnilennium
unununnium
ununoctium
ununennium
At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu 2+ / Cu, Zn 2+ / Zn, Fe 2+ / Fe and Ag + / Ag are 0.34 V, –0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively. On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
Choose the correct statement:
Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
Given below are two statements Statement I: Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts. Statement II: Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells. Reason (R): In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from th e options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
57
57
57
5.57
Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate π molecular orbitals
2H+ ion has one electron
2O+ ion is diamagnetic
The bond orders of 2 2 2O , O , O+− and 2 2O − are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair - lone pair’ electron repulsions?
IF5
SF4
XeF2
CIF3
What mass of 95% pure CaCO 3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction? CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) [Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
32 g
65 g
9.50 g
25 g
Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and −22xyd and 2zd are similar to each other.
In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4 d orbitals.
All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
high exchange enthalpy
high electronegativity
high basic character
small size
The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction. The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are
zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = conce ntration)
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t ½)
zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t ½ and x = concentration)
The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
Enzymes are polysaccharides.
Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
Identify the incorrect statement from the following
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
Given below are half cell reactions: − + − ++ + → + 2 42MnO 8H 5e Mn 4H O , +− =−2 4 º Mn /MnOE 1.510 V +−+ + →22 1O 2H 2e H O2 , =+22 º O /H OE 1.223 V Will the permanganate ion, – 4MnO liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
No, because ° =cellE – 0.287 V
Yes, because ° =+cellE 2.733 V
No, because ° =−cellE 2.733 V
Yes, because ° =+cellE 0.287 V
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Li | (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide |
| (b) Na | (ii) electrochemical cells |
| (c) KOH | (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors |
| (d) Cs | (iv) photoelectric cell |
(a) - (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(a) - (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(a) - (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(a) - (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
Given below are two statements Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group. Statement II: o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of: (a) particulate matter (b) ozone (c) hydrocarbons (d) hydrogen peroxide Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a), (b), (d) only
(b), (c), (d) only
(a), (c), (d) only
(a), (d) only
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol
1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
233O (g) 2O (g) for the above reaction at 298 K, K C is found to be 3.0 × 10 –59. If the concentration of O 2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O3 in M is
9 × 10–63
4 × 1031
2 × 1021
38 × 10–32
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I (Ores) | List-II (Composition) |
| (a) Haematite | (i) Fe₂O₃ |
| (b) Magnetite | (ii) Fe₃O₄ |
| (c) Calamine | (iii) ZnCO₃ |
| (d) Kaolinite | (iv) [Al₂(OH)₄Si₂O₅] |
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent. Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
+6 to +4
+7 to +3
+6 to +5
+7 to +4
For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is
0.9212
0.4606
0.2303
3818
Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X is
2-Methylbut-1-ene
2-Methylbut-2-ene
Pent-2-ene
3-Methylbut-1-ene
A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27ºC. (Assume O 2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1)
498.6
49.8
9
5
The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ and (C) [Ni(en)3]2+ is
(C) > (B) > (A)
(C) > (A) > (B)
(B) > (A) > (C)
(A) > (B) > (C)
Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2 -pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by heating?
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )2Ni s 2Ag 0.001M Ni 0.001M 2Ag s+++ → + cell 2.303 RTGiven that E 10.5 V, 0.059 at 298 KF °⎛⎞ ==⎜⎟⎝⎠
385 V
0.9615 V
05 V
0385 V
If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li 2+ ion?
15.87 pm
587 pm
158.7 Å
158.7 pm
Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10 –8 cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm–3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
31.55 u
60 u
65 u
63.1 u
The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
(Image option — will be added soon) (3)
(Image option — will be added soon) (2)
(Image option — will be added soon) (1)
(Image option — will be added soon) (4)
Read the following statements about the vascular bundles : (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii. (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b), (c) and (d) Only
(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b) and (d) Only
Identify the correct set of statements : (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) and (d) Only
(b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(b) and (c) Only
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :
Bivalent
Sites at which crossing over occurs
Terminalization
Synaptonemal complex
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements : (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a), (c), (d) Only
(b), (e) Only
(a), (c), (e) Only
(b), (d), (e) Only
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells. Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :
Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
Competition
Biodiversity loss
Natality
Population explosion
Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :
Gibberellin
Ethylene
Cytokinin
ABA
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
Six
Two
Eight
Four
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
Rhodophyceae only
Phaeophyceae only
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
“Girdling Experiment” was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
food is transported
for both water and food transportation
osmosis is observed
water is transported
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Ulothrix – Mannitol
Porphyra – Floridian Starch
Volvox – Starch
Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :
DNA finger printing
Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
Translation
Genetic mapping
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Manganese | (i) Activates the enzyme catalase |
| (b) Magnesium | (ii) Required for pollen germination |
| (c) Boron | (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration |
| (d) Iron | (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis |
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :
The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :
Incinerator
Electrostatic Precipitator
Catalytic Convertor
STP
The flowers are Zygomorphic in: (a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b), (c) Only
(d), (e) Only
(c), (d), (e) Only
(a), (b), (c) Only
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
It might lead to extinction of a species
Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
National Parks
Micropropagation
Cryopreservation
In vitro fertilization
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
Coriander
Buttercup
Maize
Cotton
What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
More than 18%
About 10%
Less than 7%
Approximately 15%
The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface
help overcome apical dominance
kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
speed up the malting process
Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?
The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement
Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells
Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
Breakdown of electron gradient
Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
Breakdown of proton gradient
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
Pisum sativum
Allium cepa
Solanum nigrum
Colchicum autumnale
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
Frankia
Rhodospirillum
Beijerinckia
Rhizobium
Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucosamine
Cutin
XO type of sex determination can be found in :
Birds
Grasshoppers
Monkeys
Drosophila
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to : (a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels. (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem. (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem. (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem. (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) and (d) Only
(d) and (e) Only
(b) and (d) Only
(a) and (b) Only
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Metacentric chromosome | (i) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes |
| (b) Acrocentric chromosome | (ii) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arm |
| (c) Submetacentric chromosome | (iii) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm |
| (d) Telocentric chromosome | (iv) Centromere at the terminal end |
(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?
The same diesel engine is used in CNG buses making the cost of conversion low
It is cheaper than diesel
It cannot be adulterated like diesel
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements: (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a), (d) and (e) only
(c), (d) and (e) only
(a), (b) and (d) only
(a), (b) and (c) only
The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood. (a) It is also called as the earlywood (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels (c) It is lighter in colour (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings (e) It has lower density Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b) and (d) Only
(c), (d) and (e) Only
(a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?
Gene Silencing
Autoradiography
Gene sequencing
Polymerase Chain Reaction
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?
5′GAATTC3′; 3′CTTAAG5′
5′CTCAGT3′; 3′GAGTCA5′
5′GTATTC3′; 3′CATAAG5′
5′GATACT3′; 3′CTATGA5′
Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
Volcanic activity
Weathering of rocks
Rain fall and storms
Burning of fossil fuels
Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits: List-I List-II
| Column - I | Column - II |
| (a) Spirogyra | (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte |
| (b) Fern | (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte |
| (c) Funaria | (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus |
| (d) Cycas | (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte |
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and (–) for another specifies involved in the interaction ?
Amensalim
Commensalism
Competition
Predation
Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :
lower its water potential
make its water potential zero
not affect the water potential at all
raise its water potential
Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?
B → Endocarp
C → Thalamus
D → Seed
A → Mesocarp
Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?
Myotonic dystrophy
Haemophilia
Thalessemia
Sickle cell anaemia
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :
Gene mapping
Expressed sequence tags
Bioinformatics
Sequence annotation
What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C 4 plants?
To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
Salamandra
Hippocampus
Pavo
Ornithorhynchus
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes
Chromosomes decondense at telophase
Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures. Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
)A ( is correct but ) R ( is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both ) A ( and ) R ( are correct and ) R ( is the correct explanation of ) A(
Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ________ ml of O2 to the tissues.
5 ml
4 ml
10 ml
2 ml
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?
C12H20O10
C12H24O12
C12H22O11
C12H24O11
In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
Catla ,Columba ,Crocodilus
Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
Corvus ,Columba ,Chameleon
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to
Directional change
Disruptive change
Random change
Stabilising change
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
SER is devoid of ribosomes
In prokaryotes only RER are present
SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
Cartilage
Areolar tissue
Smooth muscle
Intercalated discs
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
Digestion of complex carbohydrates
Lubrication of oral cavity
Digestion of disaccharides
Control bacterial population in mouth
In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
z, y, a genes will be transcribed
z ,y ,a genes will not be translated
RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
Only z gene will get transcribed
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :
Conidia
Gemmules
Buds
Zoospores
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
6. 6× bp 106
3× bp 109
6. × 610bp 9
3× bp 106
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
Adipose tissue
Cartilage
Neuroglia
Blood
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and IStatement I are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both tatement IS and Statement II are correct
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
Fragmentation
Humification
Decomposition
Catabolism
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis? (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary (e) It is initiated at puberty Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b) and (c) only
(b), (d) and (e) only
(b), (c) and (e) only
(c) and (e) only
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood. Statement II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
10
0
zero
0.1
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Tegmina in cockroach, arises from
Mesothorax
Metathorax
Prothorax and Mesothorax
Prothorax
In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?
Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :
Clostridium butylicum
Aspergillus niger
Streptococcus cerevisiae
Trichoderma polysporum
Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
Inhaled air is humidified
Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
Vault barrier
Non-Medicated IUD
Copper releasing IUD
Cervical barrier
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
)A ( is correct but ) R ( is not correct
)A ( is not correct but ) R ( is correct
Both ) A ( and ) R (are correct and ) R ( is the correct explanation of ) A(
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size. Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis -II
Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
In-situ conservation refers to:
Conserve only high-risk species
Conserve only endangered species
Conserve only extinct species
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?
Embryonic development stage
Birth
Adult
Puberty
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
Tetany – High Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.
Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
Arthritis – Inflammed joints
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :
Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stag es
ntLymphocytes from patie 's blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :
Bio-remediation
Bio-fortification
Bio-accumulation
Bio-magnification
Which one of the following statements is correct?
The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
mory of first encounterAnamnestic response is due to me .
Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I (Biological Molecules) | List-II (Biological Functions) |
| (a) Glycogen | (i) Storage product |
| (b) Globulin | (ii) Antibody |
| (c) Steroids | (iii) Hormone |
| (d) Thrombin | (iv) Biocatalyst |
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iii(
)a (- ) ii(, )b (- ) iv(, )c (- ) iii(, )d (- ) i(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) iii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) ii(
)a (- ) iii(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) iv(, )d (- ) i(
Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
| List-I | List-II |
| (a) Diaphragms | (i) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms |
| (b) Contraceptive Pills | (ii) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation |
| (c) Intra Uterine Devices | (iii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus |
| (d) Lactational Amenorrhea | (iv) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition |
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) i(, )c (- ) ii(, )d (- ) iii(
)a (- ) ii(, )b (- ) iv(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iii(
)a (- ) iii(, )b (- ) ii(, )c (- ) i(, )d (- ) iv(
)a (- ) iv(, )b (- ) i(, )c (- ) iii(, )d (- ) ii(
Ten E.coli cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?
40 cells
60 cells
80 cells
20 cells
The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
d, b, a, c
a, b, c, d
a, c, b, d
a, d, b, c
Given below are two statements: Statements I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles. Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(b) only
(a), (b) and (d) only
(c) and (d) only
(c), (d) and (e) only
Which of the following statements is not true?
Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
Homology indicates common ancestry
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
Presence of a marker gene
Presence of single restriction enzyme site
Presence of two or more recognition sites
Presence of origin of replication
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera .
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone? (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption (b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood (c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules (d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
)a (and )c (only
(b) and (c) only
)a (and )e (only
(b), (d) and (e) only
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness?
50%
75%
100%
25%
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Physics
28 NEET chapters
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28 NEET chapters
Botany
18 NEET chapters
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2022 Question Paper, Code T2. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.