Official NTA NEET-UG 2024 question paper, set Q1. 200 questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Biology with worked solutions and the official answer key.
Q1–Q57 · 50 questions
A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the following truth table :
| A | B | Y |
| 0 | 0 | 1 |
| 0 | 1 | 0 |
| 1 | 0 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 | 0 |
The expression for the output Y is :
AB + \overline{A}
A\overline{B} + \overline{A}
\overline{B}
B
A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?
Point P moves slower than point Q
Point P moves faster than point Q
Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
Point P has zero speed
In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is :
2 μF
1 μF
0.5 μF
4 μF
At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by 2t – 1 (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):
10
5
7
6
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The potential (V) at any axial point, at 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector P of magnitude, C m, is V. (Take SI units) Reason R: , where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
A is false but R is true.
Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is . The ratio is
1 : 2
2 : 1
4 : 1
1 : 4
In a uniform magnetic field of T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is kg m. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is Am, then the value of ‘’ is :
An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then
The reflected light will be partially polarised.
The refracted light will be completely polarised.
Both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised.
The reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer: A. For a solar cell, the I - V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph. B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (A), is due to majority charge carriers.
A is correct but B is incorrect
A is incorrect but B is correct
Both A and B are correct
Both A and B are incorrect
The graph which shows the variation of and its kinetic energy, is (where is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle):
The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the figure is:
4 V
6 V
8 V
10 V
The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are:
strain and angle
stress and angle
strain and arc
angular speed and stress
In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:
AB and DC
BA and CD
AB and CD
BA and DC
The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is g cm. The length of the g rod is nearly:
cm
cm
cm
cm
If represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are
cm, s
m, s
cm, s
m, s
The mass of a planet is that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is:
m s
m s
m s
m s
A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is :
Zero
4 N
6 N
10 N
A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path bc is:
Zero
30 J
−90 J
−60 J
In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are
280, 81
286, 80
288, 82
286, 81
A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains:
Constant velocity
Constant acceleration
Constant velocity but varying acceleration
Varying velocity and varying acceleration
A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:
In a vernier callipers, ( N + 1) divisions of vernier scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is:
If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then
Interference pattern will disappear
There will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes
All bright fringes will be of equal width
If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are: A. The energy of a photon is E = hν. B. The velocity of a photon is c. C. The momentum of a photon, p = . D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved. E. Photon possesses positive charge. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A and B only
A, B, C and D only
A, C and D only
A, B, D and E only
The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a
NAND gate
NOR gate
OR gate
AND gate
Match List I with List II.
| Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from | Wavelengths (nm |
| A. n₂ = 3 to n₁ = 2 | I. 410.2 |
| B. n₂ = 4 to n₁ = 2 | II. 434.1 |
| C. n₂ = 5 to n₁ = 2 | III. 656.3 |
| D. n₂ = 6 to n₁ = 2 | IV. 486.1 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 N m⁻¹, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is
19.8 mN
198 N
98 mN
99 N
In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is . The ratio is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning) :
1 : 2
2 : 1
1 : 1
1 : 4
The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are and , is:
4 mm
0.4 mm
40 mm
8 mm
A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and P (in V) shown in the figure is: (Take SI units)
Zero
A wire of length 'l' and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:
26 Ω
52 Ω
55 Ω
60 Ω
A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as SI units):
44 mT
4 T
4 mT
44 T
Match List-I with List-II.
| Material | Susceptibility ( |
| A. Diamagnetic | I. |
| B. Ferromagnetic | II. |
| C. Paramagnetic | III. |
| D. Non-magnetic | IV. (a small positive number) |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of rpm. The tension in the string is T. If speed becomes while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes:
T
4T
A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates:
There is no current
Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I
Displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in a direction opposite to that of I
Displacement current of magnitude greater than I flows but can be in any direction
A 10 μF capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (π = 3.14):
0.58 A
0.93 A
20 A
0.35 A
If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is times its original time period. Then the value of is:
3
2
4
The following graph represents the curves of an ideal gas (where is the temperature and the volume) at three pressures , and compared with those of Charles’s law represented as dotted lines. Then the correct relation is:
The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the earth is:
The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that:
They are transverse in nature
The energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field
They travel with a speed equal to
They originate from charges moving with uniform speed
Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.
Circuit diagram with resistors 10Ω, 10Ω, 15Ω, 5Ω and galvanometer G, battery E, key K, and detector D.
Circuit diagram with resistors 10Ω, 10Ω, 15Ω, 5Ω and galvanometer G, battery E, key K, and detector D.
Circuit diagram with resistors 10Ω, 10Ω, 15Ω, 5Ω and galvanometer G, battery E, key K, and detector D.
Circuit diagram with resistors 10Ω, 10Ω, 15Ω, 5Ω and galvanometer G, battery E, key K, and detector D.
A force defined by acts on a particle at a given time . The factor which is dimensionless, if and are constants, is:
Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:
1 : 1
2 : 9
1 : 2
2 : 3
An iron bar of length has magnetic moment . It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle 60° with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is :
A metallic bar of Young’s modulus, N m and coefficient of linear thermal expansion °C, length 1 m and area of cross-section m is heated from 0°C to 100°C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is :
N
N
N
N
The velocity (v) – time (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below: [Diagram: A velocity-time graph showing a trapezoidal shape starting at origin, rising linearly, then flat, then falling linearly back to zero on the time axis.] The acceleration (a) – time (t) graph that best suits this motion is :
[Graph: a-t graph with a positive rectangular pulse followed by a negative rectangular pulse]
[Graph: a-t graph with a positive ramp followed by a flat positive line]
[Graph: a-t graph with a positive rectangular pulse followed by a negative rectangular pulse, matching the slope changes of the v-t graph]
[Graph: a-t graph with a negative rectangular pulse followed by a positive ramp]
If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then A. the charge stored in it, increases. B. the energy stored in it, decreases. C. its capacitance increases. D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same. E. the product of charge and voltage increases. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) A, B and E only (2) A, C and E only (3) B, D and E only (4) A, B and C only
A, B and E only
A, C and E only
B, D and E only
A, B and C only
A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:
34
28
17
32
A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to: A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic. B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic. C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting. D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:
B and D only
A and C only
A, C and D only
C only
The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He⁺ ion is –x J, then that for an electron in n = 2 state for Be³⁺ ion in J is
–x
–4x
Q19–Q100 · 50 questions
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges. Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity: N, O, F, C, Si
Si < C < N < O < F
Si < C < O < N < F
O < F < N < C < Si
F < O < N < C < Si
Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.
(i) H₂O/H⁺ (ii) CrO₃
(i) BH₃ (ii) H₂O₂ / OH⁻ (iii) PCC
(i) BH₃ (ii) H₂O₂ / OH⁻ (iii) alk.KMnO₄ (iv) H₃O⁺
(i) H₂O/H⁺ (ii) PCC
The compound that will undergo S1 reaction with the fastest rate is
For the reaction , . At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is: M. Then, which of the following is correct?
Reaction is at equilibrium.
Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction.
The highest number of helium atoms is in
4 mol of helium
4 u of helium
4 g of helium
271098 L of helium at STP
Match List I with List II.
| Process | Conditions |
| A. Isothermal process | I. No heat exchange |
| B. Isochoric process | II. Carried out at constant temperature |
| C. Isobaric process | III. Carried out at constant volume |
| D. Adiabatic process | IV. Carried out at constant pressure |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Match List I with List II.
| Molecule | Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms |
| A. ethane | I. one σ-bond and two π-bonds |
| B. ethene | II. two π-bonds |
| C. carbon molecule, C₂ | III. one σ-bond |
| D. ethyne | IV. one σ-bond and one π-bond |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Match List I with List II. List I (Compound) List II (Shape/geometry) A. NH I. Trigonal Pyramidal B. BrF II. Square Planar C. XeF III. Octahedral D. SF IV. Square Pyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
The E° value for the Mn/Mn couple is more positive than that of Cr/Cr or Fe/Fe due to change of
d to d configuration
d to d configuration
d to d configuration
d to d configuration
In which of the following equilibria, and are NOT equal?
Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?
O
Se
Te
Po
'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions? A. B. C. D. E. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
B and D only
A and E only
B and C only
A and D only
A compound with a molecular formula of has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is :
n-hexane
2-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
2,2-dimethylbutane
Given below are two statements: Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Which plot of vs is consistent with Arrhenius equation?
The Henry’s law constant () values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:
B > A > C
B > C > A
A > C > B
A > B > C
Fehling's solution 'A' is
aqueous copper sulphate
alkaline copper sulphate
alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)
aqueous sodium citrate
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H₂O > H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S. Statement II: On the basis of molecular mass, H₂O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H₂O, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Both [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ and [CoF₆]³⁻ complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour. Statement II: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is diamagnetic whereas [CoF₆]³⁻ is paramagnetic. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
The most stable carbocation among the following is:
On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as
Crystallization
Sublimation
Distillation
Chromatography
Match List I with List II.
| Complex | Type of isomerism |
| A. [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]Cl₂ | I. Solvate isomerism |
| B. [Co(NH₃)₅(SO₄)]Br | II. Linkage isomerism |
| C. [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆] | III. Ionization isomerism |
| D. [Co(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ | IV. Coordination isomerism |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are A. Tollen's reagent B. Schiff's reagent C. HCN D. NH₂OH E. NaHSO₃ Choose the correct options from the given below:
B and C
A and D
B and E
E and D
Match List I with List II.
| Reaction | Reagents/Condition |
| A. [Chemical reaction: cyclohexene dimer → 2 cyclohexanone] | I. [Structure of benzoyl chloride] / Anhyd. AlCl₃ |
| B. [Chemical reaction: benzene → benzophenone] | II. CrO₃ |
| C. [Chemical reaction: cyclohexanol → cyclohexanone] | III. KMnO₄/KOH, Δ |
| D. [Chemical reaction: ethylbenzene → potassium benzoate] | IV. (i) O₃ |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
rate constant at standard temperature
probability of collision
orientation of reactant molecules during collision
rate constant at two different temperatures
Match List I with List II.
| Conversion | Number of Faraday required |
| A. 1 mol of H₂O to O₂ | I. 3F |
| B. 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to Mn²⁺ | II. 2F |
| C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl₂ | III. 1F |
| D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe₂O₃ | IV. 5F |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
o-nitrophenol
p-nitrophenol
m-nitrophenol
HF
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction. Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?
CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–CH₂OH
CH₃–CH₂–CH–OH | CH₃
CH₃–CH–CH₂OH | CH₃
CH₃–C–OH | CH₃ | CH₃
Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Li < Be < B < C < N
Li < B < Be < C < N
Li < Be < C < B < N
Li < Be < N < B < C
Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?
Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
2KClO₃ + I₂ → 2KIO₃ + Cl₂
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
Match List I with List II
| Quantum Number | Information provided |
| A. mₗ | I. Shape of orbital |
| B. mₛ | II. Size of orbital |
| C. l | III. Orientation of orbital |
| D. n | IV. Orientation of spin of electron |
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
In which of the following processes entropy increases?
A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.
C. 2NaHCO₃(s) → Na₂CO₃(s) + CO₂(g) + H₂O(g)
D. Cl₂(g) → 2Cl(g)
1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to
750 mg
250 mg
Zero mg
200 mg
The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are \ 3ROH + PCl_3 → 3RCl + A \ ROH + PCl_5 → RCl + HCl + B
POCl_3 and H_3PO_3
POCl_3 and H_3PO_4
H_3PO_4 and POCl_3
H_3PO_3 and POCl_3
Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are
Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:
propylamine
butylamine
butanamide
– bromobutanoic acid
During the preparation of Mohr’s salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of ion?
dilute hydrochloric acid
concentrated sulphuric acid
dilute nitric acid
dilute sulphuric acid
Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of , and . If of is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation () of at equilibrium?
0.00889
0.0889
0.8889
0.717
The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is (Given )
0 calorie
– 413.14 calories
413.14 calories
100 calories
Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is (Given: Molar mass of Cu: 63 g mol, 1 F = 96487 C)
15 g
0.315 g
31.5 g
0.0315 g
The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C. Calculate the energy of activation. Given ,
38.04 kJ/mol
380.4 kJ/mol
80 kJ/mol
3804 kJ/mol
The plot of osmotic pressure () vs concentration (mol L) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use )
37°C
310°C
25.73°C
12.05°C
Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI. A. Al³⁺ B. Cu²⁺ C. Ba²⁺ D. Co²⁺ E. Mg²⁺ Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
B, A, D, C, E
B, C, A, D, E
E, C, D, B, A
E, A, B, C, D
Given below are two statements: Statement I: [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is a homoleptic complex whereas [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ is a heteroleptic complex. Statement II: Complex [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ has only one kind of ligands but [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ has more than one kind of ligands. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is
and
and
and
and
For the given reaction: ‘P’ is
...
...
...
...
Identify the correct answer.
Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone
has non-zero dipole moment
Dipole moment of is greater than that of
Three canonical forms can be drawn for ion
A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is : (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)
Q101–Q200 · 61 questions
Match List I with List II
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.
A
B
C
D
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene | I. Back cross |
| B. Cross of F₁ progeny with homozygous recessive parent | II. Ploidy |
| C. Cross of F₁ progeny with any of the parents | III. Allele |
| D. Number of chromosome sets in plant | IV. Test cross |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end;
Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
promotes apical dominance.
promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: A. Over exploitation B. Co-extinction C. Mutation D. Habitat loss and fragmentation E. Migration Choose the correct option:
A, C and D only
A, B, C and D only
A, B and E only
A, B and D only
Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?
Datura
Cassia
Pisum
Sesbania
The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:
Totipotency
Micropropagation
Differentiation
Somatic hybridization
Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
8 bp
6 bp
4 bp
10 bp
Identify the set of correct statements: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. B. The flowers of water lily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
C, D and E only
A, B, C and D only
A, C, D and E only
B, C, D and E only
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue. Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
Differentiation
Redifferentiation
Dedifferentiation
Maturation
Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:
Cofactor inhibition
Feedback inhibition
Competitive inhibition
Enzyme activation
Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)
(a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
(a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
(a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous
(a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?
BB
bb
Bb
BB/Bb
Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because
Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.
Tropical environments are more seasonal.
More solar energy is available in tropics.
Constant environments promote niche specialization.
The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is . From this equation, K indicates:
Intrinsic rate of natural increase
Biotic potential
Carrying capacity
Population density
In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?
C
D
A
B
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage. Statement II: The beginning of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
List of endangered species was released by
GEAC
WWF
FOAM
IUCN
Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? A. Light B. Chlorophyll C. CO₂ D. ATP E. NADPH Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A, B and C only
B, C and D only
C, D and E only
D and E only
The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called
in-situ conservation
Biodiversity conservation
Semi-conservative method
Sustainable development
What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?
A and B only
D and E only
B and C only
A and E only
Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F₂ generation.
C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?
Morphology of mycelium
Mode of nutrition
Mode of spore formation
Fruiting body
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Bulliform cells are responsible for
Inward curling of leaves in monocots .
Protecting the plant from salt stress .
Increased photosynthesis in monocots .
Providing large spaces for storage of sugars .
A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?
Only red flowered plants
Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
Only pink flowered plants
Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of fixed in the Calvin cycle?
2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Robert May | I. Species-Area relationship |
| B. Alexander von Humboldt | II. Long term ecosystem experiment using out door plots |
| C. Paul Ehrlich | III. Global species diversity at about 7 million |
| D. David Tilman | IV. Rivet popper hypothesis |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Identify the correct description about the given figure:
Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.
Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Frederick Griffith | I. Genetic code |
| B. Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod | II. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication |
| C. Har Gobind Khorana | III. Transformation |
| D. Meselson & Stahl | IV. Lac operon |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?
Auxin
Gibberellin
Cytokinin
Abscisic acid
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Rose | I. Twisted aestivation |
| B. Pea | II. Perigynous flower |
| C. Cotton | III. Drupe |
| D. Mango | IV. Marginal placentation |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: In the members of Phaeophyceae, A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A, B, C and D only
B, C, D and E only
A, C, D and E only
A, B, C and E only
Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid
Succinic acid → Malic acid
Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid
Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid
Given below are two statements: Statement I: In C₃ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased. Statement II: In C₄ plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Match List I with List II
| Types of Stamens | Example |
| A. Monoadelphous | I. Citrus |
| B. Diadelphous | II. Pea |
| C. Polyadelphous | III. Lily |
| D. Epiphyllous | IV. China-rose |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
The DNA present in chloroplast is:
Linear, double stranded
Circular, double stranded
Linear, single stranded
Circular, single stranded
In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is (kcal m yr), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?
(kcal m yr)
(kcal m yr)
(kcal m yr)
(kcal m yr)
Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
Callus
Somatic embryos
Protoplasts
Pollens
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Citric acid cycle | I. Cytoplasm |
| B. Glycolysis | II. Mitochondrial matrix |
| C. Electron transport system | III. Intermembrane space of mitochondria |
| D. Proton gradient | IV. Inner mitochondrial membrane |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in ?
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’
The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system
Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template? 3'TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5'
5'AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3'
5'AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3'
5'AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3'
5'ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3'
Match List I with List II : List I (Sub Phases of Prophase I) A. Diakinesis B. Pachytene C. Zygotene D. Leptotene List II (Specific Characters) I. Synaptonemal complex formation II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata III. Chromosomes look like thin threads IV. Appearance of recombination nodules Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Match List I with List II
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Match List I with List II : List I A. Axoneme B. Cartwheel pattern C. Crista D. Satellite List II I. Centriole II. Cilia and flagella III. Chromosome IV. Mitochondria Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Match List I with List II : List I A. α –I antitrypsin B. Cry IAb C. Cry IAc D Enzyme replacement therapy List II I. Cotton bollworm II. ADA deficiency III. Emphysema IV Corn borer Choose the correct answer form the options given below: (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for (1) Tumour inhibiting plasmid (2) Tumor independent plasmid (3) Tumor inducing plasmid (4) Temperature independent plasmid
Tumour inhibiting plasmid
Tumor independent plasmid
Tumor inducing plasmid
Temperature independent plasmid
Following are the stages of cell division: A. Gap 2 phase B. Cytokinesis C. Synthesis phase D. Karyokinesis E. Gap 1 phase Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below:
C-E-D-A-B
E-B-D-A-C
B-D-E-A-C
E-C-A-D-B
Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Genetic recombination
Genetic drift
Gene migration
Constant gene pool
Match List I with List II :
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
The following diagram showing restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes :
The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
Gene 'X' is responsible for recognitions sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
Match List I with List II :
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Match List I with List II :
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both double membranes bound organelles. Statement II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared chloroplast. In the light of the above statements, choose the mis appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their respective genotype can be
I^B i / I^A i / ii
I^B I^B / I^A I^A / ii
I^A I^B / I^A / I^B i
I^A i / I^B i / I^A i
Match List I with List II:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Q103–Q198 · 39 questions
Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:
Amino acids
Phospholipids
Glycerides
Carbohydrates
Match List I with List II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Clostridium butylicum | I. Ethanol |
| B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae | II. Streptokinase |
| C. Trichoderma polysporum | III. Butyric acid |
| D. Streptococcus sp. | IV. Cyclosporin-A |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:
Zinc
Niacin
Flavin
Haem
Match List I with List II List - I List - II A. Nucleolus I. Site of formation of glycolipid B. Centriole II. Organization like the cartwheel C. Leucoplasts III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis D. Golgi apparatus IV. For storing nutrients Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of
Beta-galactosidase
Acetylase
Permease
Polymerase
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
| A. GLUT-4 | I. Hormone |
| B. Insulin | II. Enzyme |
| C. Trypsin | III. Intercellular ground substance |
| D. Collagen | IV. Enables glucose transport into cells |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?
Cortisol
Testosterone
Progesterone
Glucagon
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity. Statement II: The hymen is torn during the first coitus only. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male. Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
Match List I with List II:
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Typhoid | I. Fungus |
| B. Leishmaniasis | II. Nematode |
| C. Ringworm | III. Protozoa |
| D. Filariasis | IV. Bacteria |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres C. AV node D. Bundle branches E. SA node Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below
E-C-A-D-B
A-E-C-B-D
B-D-E-C-A
E-A-D-B-C
Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in human body:
(a) Smooth - Toes (b) Skeletal – Legs (c) Cardiac – Heart
(a) Skeletal - Triceps (b) Smooth – Stomach (c) Cardiac – Heart
(a) Skeletal - Biceps (b) Involuntary – Intestine (c) Smooth – Heart
(a) Involuntary – Nose tip (b) Skeletal – Bone (c) Cardiac – Heart
Match List I with List II : List-I A. Lipase B. Nuclease C. Protease D. Amylase List-II I. Peptide bond II. Ester bond III. Glycosidic bond IV. Phosphodiester bond
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is correct but R is not correct
A is not correct but R is correct
Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)
Homo habilis
Homo sapiens
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo erectus
Match List I with List II : List I A. Pterophyllum B. Myxine C. Pristis D. Exocoetus List II I. Hag fish II. Saw fish III. Angel fish IV. Flying fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Match List I with List II : List I A. Pleurobrachia B. Radula C. Stomochord D. Air bladder List II I. Mollusca II. Ctenophora III. Osteichthyes IV. Hemichordata Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?
Coitus interruptus
Periodic abstinence
Lactational amenorrhea
Vaults
Match List I with List II:
| List-I | List-II |
| A. Pons | I. Provides additional space for Neurons, regulates posture and balance. |
| B. Hypothalamus | II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions. |
| C. Medulla | III. Connects different regions of the brain. |
| D. Cerebellum | IV. Neuro secretory cells |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
A. Myasthenia gravis, C. Gout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis, D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?
Uterine fundus
Isthmus
Infundibulum
Ampulla
Match List I with List II : List I A. Fibrous joints B. Cartilaginous joints C. Hinge joints D. Ball and socket joints List II I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement III. Skull, don't allow any movement IV. Knee, help in locomotion Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the
Adaptive radiation
Natural selection
Convergent evolution
Divergent evolution
Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on
5th segment
10th segment
8th and 9th segment
11th segment
Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
High pO₂ and High pCO₂
High pO₂ and Lesser H⁺ concentration
Low pCO₂ and High H⁺ concentration
Low pCO₂ and High temperature
Consider the following statements : A. Annelids are true coelomates B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates
B only
A only
C only
D only
Match List I with List II : List I A. Cocaine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Marijuana List II I. Effective sedative in surgery II. Cannabis sativa III. Erythroxylum IV. Papaver somniferum Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
The following are the statements about non-chordates: A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits. B. Notochord is absent. C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
B. Notochord is absent.
C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach. List I A. The structures used for storing of food B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of foregut and midgut. C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filaments at junction of midgut and hindgut. D. The structures used for grinding the food. List II I. Gizzard II. Gastric Caeca III. Malpighian tubules IV. Crop Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Match List I with List II : List I A. Exophthalmic goiter B. Acromegaly C. Cushing's syndrome D. Cretinism List II I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia. II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth. III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls. IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron. (1) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini. (2) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla. (3) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla. (4) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps : A. Substrate enzyme complex formation. B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate. C. Release of products. D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken. E. Substrate binding to active site. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
E, A, D, C, B
A, E, B, D, C
B, A, C, D, E
E, D, C, B, A
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Unicellular glandular epithelium | I. | Salivary glands |
| B. | Compound epithelium | II. | Pancreas |
| C. | Multicellular glandular epithelium | III. | Goblet cells of alimentary canal |
| D. | Endocrine glandular epithelium | IV. | Moist surface of buccal cavity |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Mesozoic Era | I. | Lower invertebrates |
| B. | Proterozoic Era | II. | Fish & Amphibia |
| C. | Cenozoic Era | III. | Birds & Reptiles |
| D. | Paleozoic Era | IV. | Mammals |
Match List I with List II :
| List I | List II | |
|---|---|---|
| A. | P wave | I. Heart muscles are electrically silent. |
| B. | QRS complex | II. Depolarisation of ventricles. |
| C. | T wave | III. Depolarisation of atria. |
| D. | T-P gap | IV. Repolarisation of ventricles. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.
FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis.
ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis.
ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
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Source: National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET-UG 2024 Question Paper, Code Q1. Solutions written for educational use, NCERT-aligned. Verify your answers against the official NTA answer key.